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If you’re looking for a breakthrough point, you want to pass the Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam. My advice to you is: Get the latest 200-301 dumps and some guidelines to remember.
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Question 1:
What are two benefits of using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)
A. They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.
B. They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.
C. They provide a layer of security from internet threats.
D. They supply redundancy in the case of failure.
E. They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 2:
Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice-level message to a Syslog server?
A. An interface line has changed status.
B. An ICMP connection has been built.
C. A TCP connection has been torn down.
D. A certificate has expired.
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3709.8968
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070.AB01
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?
A. CCMP128
B. GCMP256
C. CCMP256
D. GCMP128
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity\’? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. WPA3
C. Wi-Fi 6
D. WEP
E. WPA
Correct Answer: BD
Question 6:
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. mismatched autonomous system numbers
B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
C. mismatched process IDs
D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers
E. use of the same router ID on both devices
Correct Answer: DE
Question 7:
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
A. disk
B. applications
C. VM configuration file
D. operating system
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment. Which command must be used to configure the route?
A. route add 10.0.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3
B. route add 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2
C. ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3
D. ip route 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
Which interface enables the communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
A. northbound interface
B. software virtual interface
C. southbound interface
D. tunnel Interface
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
A. VTP
B. DTP
C. egress traffic
D. ingress traffic
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2
B. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3
C. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2
D. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2
E. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200
Correct Answer: DE
Question 12:
What criteria are used first during the root port selection process?
A. local port ID
B. lowest path cost to the root bridge
C. lowest neighbor\’s bridge ID
D. lowest neighbor\’s port ID
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
A. 10.10.10.1
B. 10.10.10.11
C. 10.10.10.12
D. 10.10.10.14
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which step immediately follows receipt of the EAP success message when session resumption is disabled for an EAP-TLS connection?
A. PMKID caching
B. four-way handshake
C. 802.1X authentication
D. EAPOL-keyframe
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
Now that you’ve shared your free exam resources, it’s time to talk about some guidelines that are all designed to help you pass the Cisco exam 200-301.
Some guidelines should be noted: CCNA 200-301 exam
Familiarity with the syllabus and reading of official textbooks is a must:
The exam syllabus, the official Cisco textbook is an essential resource for exam preparation and can help candidates gain a deep understanding of concepts and techniques.
Establish a good study plan:
Develop a detailed study plan based on the exam syllabus and personal time and abilities, including daily, weekly, and monthly goals.
Participate in practice tests to improve the practical experience:
deepen the understanding and application of knowledge through practice, such as building a network experimental environment, simulating real network scenarios, etc.
For example, practice sample questions:
By practicing sample questions, candidates can understand the difficulty and type of the test and improve the speed and accuracy of answering questions.
There are two other small points that also require special attention
Pay attention to the exam time: the exam time is limited, and candidates need to master time management skills, allocate time reasonably, and grasp the rhythm of answering questions.
Stay healthy during test preparation: maintain physical health and mental health, arrange your work and rest time reasonably, and ensure adequate sleep and rest.
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Cisco exam 500-701 is designed to test your mastery of Cisco Video Infrastructure Design. Did you fail your first Cisco 500-701 exam? If that’s the case, geekcert’s Cisco 500-701 exam dumps are a huge help for everyone who passes the 500-701 exam for the first time.
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The Cisco exam questions 500-701 PDF file contains a total of 12 questions and answers and is part of the latest version of the dumps.
Free Cisco Advanced Video Specialization 500-701 Exam Actual Questions
QUESTION 1 #
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?
A. Global phone books B. The ability to register desktop phones C. The ability to register video endpoints D. SRST redundancy
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 #
Which room system can also function as a whiteboard?
A. Spark Board B. SX10 C. SX20 D. MX800
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 #
How many simultaneous HD calls can be supported on a Cisco Meeting Server 1000?
A. 24 B. 96 C. 108 D. 48
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 #
What is the maximum number of Expressways that can be clustered?
A. 9 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 #
How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 50 D. 26
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 #
Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?
A. When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications configured. B. Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps. C. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway. D. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7#
Which Cisco Meeting Server component is used for traversal?
A. TURN Server B. Recorder C. SIP Edge D. Database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 #
Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?
A. Calling B. Messaging C. Room Registration D. Meeting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 #
Which call processing stage standardizes destination aliases originating from both SIP and H.323 devices?
A. Conference Template B. Find Rules C. Transforms D. Hunt Group
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 #
When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?
A. .js B. .json C. .mp4 D. .xml
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11#
What is the primary purpose of the Traversal Subzone?
A. To enable firewall traversal between public and private endpoints. B. To provide Mobile Remote Access for endpoints outside the network. C. To apply bandwidth restrictions on traversal calls. D. To encrypt traversal calls to neighbored Expressways.
Which is a configuration mode through Cisco Spark that allows Zero Touch Meetings (ZTM) and allows a user to utilize their enterprise phone as the audio or video terminal for Spark calls?
A. Call Service Connect B. Calendar Service C. Directory Service D. Call Connector
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 #
Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. CMA Clients B. Jabber Video C. Immersive Telepresence endpoints D. Legacy H.323 endpoints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 #
How is TIP defined?
A. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non-immersive endpoints. B. TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint. C. TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used D. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.
Correct Answer: A
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This blog aims to provide you with the information you need to prepare for 700-765: Cisco Security Architecture for System exam, and to share 700-765 VCE and 700-765 PDF dumps contain the latest 700-765 exam questions. You can get 700-765 VCE dumps and 700-765 PDF dumps from https://www.geekcert.com/700-765.html(Updated: Aug 27, 2020).
Preparing for 700-765:
Now, let’s take a look at these topics and their percentages in the exam. Details can be found here.
Cisco Channel Partner Program 700-765 Exam Practice Tests:
QUESTION 1 What are the main features of Umbrella for Cloud-Delivered Security? A. Protects users against DDOS attacks B. Blocks malware, C2 callbacks and phishing over any port/protocol C. Runs suspicious cloud applications in a sandbox environment D. Handles 130B+ DNS requests daily with 99% uptime Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.) A. pxGrid B. Cisco Security Connector C. Duo D. Stealthwatch E. AMP for Endpoints Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 3 In which two ways has digitization transformed today\\’s security threat landscape\\’? (Choose two.) A. Decreasing 3rd party applications B. Expanding complexity C. Growing ecosystem D. Decreasing endpoint ecosystem E. Increasing access points Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 Which two attack vectors are protected by MFA? (Choose two.) A. Endpoints B. Mobile C. Cloud D. Web E. Data center Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 5 What are two critical networking challenges? (Choose two.) A. Orchestration B. Automation C. Access D. Threat protection E. Visibility Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6 Which two attack vectors are protected by Cyber Threat Defense and Network Analytics? (Choose two.) A. Cloud B. Email C. Endpoints D. Web E. Data Center Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7 What are two solutions Cisco offers for web security? (Choose two.) A. CRES B. NGFW C. Cloudlock D. AMP for Web Security E. Cognitive Intelligence Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 8 What is a continuous protection feature of Advanced Malware Protection? A. Behavioral Indicators of Compromise B. Sandboxing File Analysis C. Global Threat Intelligence D. File Reputation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What are three benefits that Cisco Umbrella brings to DNS-Layer Security? (Choose three.) A. Malware scanning B. Off-network security C. Predictive intelligence D. Breach mitigation E. Reputation filtering F. Recursive DNS Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 10 What is a key feature of Application Visibility and Control? A. Automated remediation APIs B. Retrospective security C. Scalable policy inheritance D. Control of protocol-hopping apps that evade traditional firewalls Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 Which two attack vectors are protected by Visibility and Enforcement? (Choose two.) A. Cloud B. Mobile C. Endpoints D. Email E. Web Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12 What are two key capabilities of Meraki? (Choose two.) A. application visibility and control B. security automation C. contextual awareness D. device profiling E. identity-based and device-aware security Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose two.) A. More users B. More devices C. More IT professionals D. More networks E. More vulnerabilities Correct Answer: BE
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The latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam practice questions test your strength
QUESTION 1 A network engineer needs to configure an SVI on a Cisco Nexus Series switch After configuring VLAN 10, which set of commands must the engineer enter, to complete the SVI configuration?
A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form? A. Search Rules B. Find Rules C. Hunt Rules D. Conference Rules Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Drag and drop each port description on the left to the port type on the right required to support it. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Which situation results in a flashing blue status LED on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch I/O module? A. The switch has just been powered on, and the module is resetting. B. The module is resetting and both ejector levers are out. C. The module has been inserted during the initialization process. D. The module could not power up because of insufficient power. E. The operator has activated this LED to identify this module in the chassis. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9? A. The ability to register desktop phones B. Global phone books C. SRST redundancy D. The ability to register video endpoints Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown? A. Discard frame B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source C. Flood packet on all ports D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding Correct Answer: C “What happens though when the switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not included in the table? In that case the switch will just broadcast/flood the frame with the unknown destination address to all of its ports (apart from the port where the frame came from). This process is called unknown unicast flooding. “ http://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/09/how-a-switch-works/
QUESTION 8 A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the server is still unable to access the shared storage. Which command will resolve this issue? A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset B. zoneset activate zoneset2 C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2 D. copy running onfig startup-config Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which conferencing solution is designed for scalable meetings, training and events? A. Spark B. Telepresence Server C. Cisco Meeting Server D. Cisco WebEx Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch Correct Answer: AB
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A CCNA Security certification
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Free 50 Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Practice test questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Which command will prevent a group policy from inheriting a filter ACL in a clientless SSL VPN? A. vpn-filter none B. no vpn-filter C. filter value none D. filter value ACLname Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa-command-reference/T- Z/cmdref4/v.html#pgfId-1842564
QUESTION 2 A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server? A. HTTPS B. NetBIOS C. CIFS D. HTTP Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 3 A rogue static route is installed in the routing table of a Cisco FlexVPN and is causing traffic to be blackholed. Which command should be used to identify the peer from which that route originated? A. show crypto ikev2 sa detail B. show crypto route C. show crypto ikev2 client flexvpn D. show ip route eigrp E. show crypto isakmp sa detail Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 4 Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session. Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process? A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server. B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database. C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols. D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: CISCO SSL VPN guide The aaa authentication command is entered to specify an authentication list or server group under a SSL VPN context configuration. If this command is not configured and AAA is configured globally on the router, global authentication will be applied to the context configuration. The database that is configured for remote-user authentication on the SSL VPN gateway can be a local database, or the database can be accessed through any RADIUS or TACACS+ AAA server. We recommend that you use a separate AAA server, such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS). A separate AAA server provides a more robust security solution. It allows you to configure unique passwords for each remote user and accounting and logging for remote-user sessions.
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
A NOC engineer needs to tune some postlogin parameters on an SSL VPN tunnel. From the information shown, where should the engineer navigate to, in order to find all the postlogin session parameters? A. “engineering” Group Policy B. “contractor” Connection Profile C. DefaultWEBVPNGroup Group Policy D. DefaultRAGroup Group Policy E. “engineer1” AAA/Local Users Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/ htwebvpn.html#wp1054618 The policy group is a container that defines the presentation of the portal and the permissions for resources that are configured for a group of remote users. Entering the policy group command places the router in webvpn group policy configuration mode. After it is configured, the group policy is attached to the SSL VPN context configuration by configuring the default-group-policy command. The following tasks are accomplished in this configuration: The presentation of the SSL VPN portal page is configured. A NetBIOS server list is referenced. A port-forwarding list is referenced. The idle and session timers are configured. A URL list is referenced.
QUESTION 6 Which equation describes an elliptic curve? A. y3 = x3 + ax + b B. x3 = y2 + ab + x C. y4 = x2 + ax + b D. y2 = x3 + ax + b E. y2 = x2 + ax + b2 Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 7When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 14 E. 19 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Traffic initiated by the HQ ASA is assigned to the static outside crypto map, which shown below to use DH group 5
QUESTION 8 Which three changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose three.) A. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub. B. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub. C. Enable EIGRP split-horizon on the hub. D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub. E. Add NHRP shortcuts on the spoke. F. Add NHRP shortcuts on the hub. Correct Answer: ADE Explanation
QUESTION 9 Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite? A. HIPPA DES B. AES-CBC-128 C. RC4-128 D. AES-GCM-256 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/web/learning/le21/le39/docs/tdw166_prezo.pdf
QUESTION 10 Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email? A. Configuration > Device Management > Logging > E-Mail Setup B. Configuration > Device Management > E-Mail Setup > Logging Enable C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option. D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 11 Your corporate finance department purchased a new non-web-based TCP application tool to run on one of its servers. Certain finance employees need remote access to the software during nonbusiness hours. These employees do not have “admin” privileges to their PCs. What is the correct way to configure the SSL VPN tunnel to allow this application to run? A. Configure a smart tunnel for the application. B. Configure a “finance tool” VNC bookmark on the employee clientless SSL VPN portal. C. Configure the plug-in that best fits the application. D. Configure the Cisco ASA appliance to download the Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN Client to the finance employee each time an SSL VPN tunnel is established. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa80/configuration/guide/webvpn.html A smart tunnel is a connection between a TCP-based application and a private site, using a clientless (browser based) SSL VPN session with the security appliance as the pathway, and the security appliance as a proxy server. You can identify applications to which you want to grant smart tunnel access, and specify the local path to each application. For applications running on Microsoft Windows, you can also require a match of the SHA-1 hash of the checksum as a condition for granting smart tunnel access. Lotus SameTime and Microsoft Outlook Express are examples of applications to which you might want to grant smart tunnel access. Configuring smart tunnels requires one of the following procedures, depending on whether the application is a client or is a web-enabled application: •Create one or more smart tunnel lists of the client applications, then assign the list to the group policies or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel access. •Create one or more bookmark list entries that specify the URLs of the web-enabled applications eligible for smart tunnel access, then assign the list to the DAPs, group policies, or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel access. You can also list web-enabled applications for which to automate the submission of login credentials in smart tunnel connections over clientless SSL VPN sessions. Why Smart Tunnels? Smart tunnel access lets a client TCP-based application use a browser-based VPN connection to connect to a service. It offers the following advantages to users, compared to plug-ins and the legacy technology, port forwarding: •Smart tunnel offers better performance than plug-ins. •Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel simplifies the user experience by not requiring the user connection of the local application to the local port. •Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel does not require users to have administrator privileges. The advantage of a plug-in is that it does not require the client application to be installed on the remote computer. Smart Tunnel Requirements, Restrictions, and Limitations The following sections categorize the smart tunnel requirements and limitations. General Requirements and Limitations Smart tunnel has the following general requirements and limitations: •The remote host originating the smart tunnel must be running a 32-bit version of Microsoft Windows Vista, Windows XP, or Windows 2000; or Mac OS 10.4 or 10.5. •Smart tunnel auto sign-on supports only Microsoft Internet Explorer on Windows. •The browser must be enabled with Java, Microsoft ActiveX, or both. •Smart tunnel supports only proxies placed between computers running Microsoft Windows and the security appliance. Smart tunnel uses the Internet Explorer configuration (that is, the one intended for system-wide use in Windows). If the remote computer requires a proxy server to reach the security appliance, the URL of the terminating end of the connection must be in the list of URLs excluded from proxy services. If the proxy configuration specifies that traffic destined for the ASA goes through a proxy, all smart tunnel traffic goes through the proxy. In an HTTP-based remote access scenario, sometimes a subnet does not provide user access to the VPN gateway. In this case, a proxy placed in front of the ASA to route traffic between the web and the end user’s location provides web access. However, only VPN users can configure proxies placed in front of the ASA. When doing so, they must make sure these proxies support the CONNECT method. For proxies that require authentication, smart tunnel supports only the basic digest authentication type. •When smart tunnel starts, the security appliance by default passes all browser traffic through the VPN session if the browser process is the same. The security appliance also does this if a tunnel-all policy applies. If the user starts another instance of the browser process, it passes all traffic through the VPN session. If the browser process is the same and the security appliance does not provide access to a URL, the user cannot open it. As a workaround, assign a tunnel policy that is not tunnel-all. •A stateful failover does not retain smart tunnel connections. Users must reconnect following a failover.
QUESTION 12 Which two options are purposes of the key server in Cisco IOS GETVPN? (Choose two.) A. to define group members. B. to distribute static routing information. C. to distribute dynamic routing information. D. to encrypt transit traffic. Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 13 Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash? A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 14 A custom desktop application needs to access an internal server. An administrator is tasked with configuring the company’s SSL VPN gateway to allow remote users to work. Which two technologies would accommodate the company’s requirement? (Choose two). A. AnyConnect client B. Smart Tunnels C. Email Proxy D. Content Rewriter E. Portal Customizations Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit.A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker. What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly? A. The ACL was configured incorrectly. B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied. C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy. D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 16 Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.) A. IKEv1 B. IKEv2 C. SSL client D. SSL clientless E. ESP F. L2TP Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
QUESTION 17 You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers? A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication. B. Migrate to a load-balancing server. C. Migrate to a shared license server. D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 18 Which option is a required element of Secure Device Provisioning communications? A. the introducer B. the certificate authority C. the requestor D. the registration authority Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 19 When troubleshooting clientless SSL VPN connections, which option can be verified on the client PC? A. address assignment B. DHCP configuration C. tunnel group attributes D. host file misconfiguration Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 20 Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers? A. Reverse Route Injection B. split tunneling C. loopback addressing D. dynamic virtual tunnels Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 21 An engineer has integrated a new DMVPN to link remote offices across the internet using Cisco IOS routers. When connecting to remote sites, pings and voice data appear to flow properly and all tunnel stats seem to show that are up. However, when trying to connect to a remote server using RDP, the connection fails. Which action resolves this issue? A. Change DMVPN timeout values. B. Adjust the MTU size within the routers. C. Replace certificate on the RDP server. D. Add RDP port to the extended ACL. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 22 What command in cli you have to use to capture IKEv1 phase 1 A. capture match ip q port 500 eq port 500 B. capture match gre q port 500 eq port 500 C. apture match ah q port 500 eq port 500 D. capture match udp eq port 153 eq port 153 E. capture match udp eq port 500 eq port 500Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 23Based on the provided ASDM configuration for the remote ASA, which one of the following is correct? A. An access-list must be configured on the outside interface to permit inbound VPN traffic B. A route to 192.168.22.0/24 will not be automatically installed in the routing table C. The ASA will use a window of 128 packets (64×2) to perform the anti-replay check _ D. The tunnel can also be established on TCP port 10000 Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco IP security (IPsec) authentication provides anti-replay protection against an attacker duplicating encrypted packets by assigning a unique sequence number to each encrypted packet. The decryptor keeps track of which packets it has seen on the basis of these numbers. Currently, the default window size is 64 packets. Generally, this number (window size) is sufficient, but there are times when you may want to expand this window size. The IPsec Anti-Replay Window: Expanding and Disabling feature allows you to expand the window size, allowing the decryptor to keep track of more than 64 packets.
QUESTION 24 Which adaptive security appliance command can be used to see a generic framework of the requirements for configuring a VPN tunnel between an adaptive security appliance and a Cisco IOS router at a remote office? A. vpnsetup site-to-site steps B. show running-config crypto C. show vpn-sessiondb l2l D. vpnsetup ssl-remote-access steps Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which three types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose three.)A. SAML B. HTTP POST C. HTTP Basic D. NTLM E. Kerberos F. OAuth 2.0 Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
QUESTION 26 An engineer has configured Cisco AnyConnect VPN using IKEv2 on a Cisco ISO router. The user cannot connect in the Cisco AnyConnect client, but receives an alert message “Use a browser to gain access.” Which action does the engineer take to eliminate this issue? A. Reset user login credentials. B. Disable the HTTP server. C. Correct the URL address. D. Connect using HTTPS. Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 27 Which is used by GETVPN, FlexVPN and DMVPN? A. NHRP B. MPLS C. GRE D. ESP Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 28 The Cisco AnyConnect client fails to connect via IKEv2 but works with SSL. The following error message is displayed: “Login Denied, unauthorized connection mechanism, contact your administrator” What is the most possible cause of this problem? A. DAP is terminating the connection because IKEv2 is the protocol that is being used. B. The client endpoint does not have the correct user profile to initiate an IKEv2 connection. C. The AAA server that is being used does not authorize IKEv2 as the connection mechanism. D. The administrator is restricting access to this specific user. E. The IKEv2 protocol is not enabled in the group policy of the VPN headend. Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 29 What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.) A. CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD B. CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD C. CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME D. CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 30 Which command is used to determine how many GMs have registered in a GETVPN environment? A. show crypto isakmp sa B. show crypto gdoi ks members C. show crypto gdoi gm D. show crypto ipsec sa E. show crypto isakmp sa count Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 31 Which three configuration parameters are mandatory for an IKEv2 profile? (Choose three.) A. IKEv2 proposal B. local authentication method C. match identity or certificate D. IKEv2 policy E. PKI certificate authority F. remote authentication method G. IKEv2 profile description H. virtual template Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit.
A new NOC engineer is troubleshooting a VPN connection. Which statement about the fields within the Cisco VPN Client Statistics screen is correct?A. The ISP-assigned IP address of 10.0.21.1 is assigned to the VPN adapter of the PC. B. The IP address of the security appliance to which the Cisco VPN Client is connected is 192.168.1.2. C. CorpNet is the name of the Cisco ASA group policy whose tunnel parameters the connection is using. D. The ability of the client to send packets transparently and unencrypted through the tunnel for test purposes is turned off. E. With split tunneling enabled, the Cisco VPN Client registers no decrypted packets. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 33 Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec profile ProfileName shared? A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2 Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 34 Refer to the exhibit.
The customer can establish an AnyConnect connection on the first attempt only. Subsequent attempts fail. What might be the issue? A. IKEv2 is blocked over the path. B. UserGroup must be different than the name of the connection profile. C. The primary protocol should be SSL. D. UserGroup must be the same as the name of the connection profile. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 35 Which command enables the router to form EIGRP neighbor adjacencies with peers using a different subnet than the ingress interface? A. ip unnumbered interface B. eigrp router-id C. passive-interface interface name D. ip split-horizon eigrp as number Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 36 Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions? A. show vpn-sessiondb summary B. show crypto ikev1 sa C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption D. show iskamp sa detail E. show crypto protocol statistics all Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 37 Which NGE IKE Diffie-Hellman group identifier has the strongest cryptographic properties? A. group 10 B. group 24 C. group 5 D. group 20 Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 38 An engineer is configuring an IPsec VPN with IKEv2. Which three components are part of the IKEv2 proposal for this implementation? (Choos three.) A. key ring B. DH group C. integrity D. tunnel name E. encryption Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
QUESTION 39 Remote users want to access internal servers behind an ASA using Microsoft terminal services. Which option outlines the steps required to allow users access via the ASA clientless VPN portal? A. 1. Configure a static pat rule for TCP port 3389 2. Configure an inbound access-list to allow traffic from remote users to the servers 3. Assign this access-list rule to the group policy B. 1. Configure a bookmark of the type http:// server-IP :3389 2. Enable Smart tunnel on this bookmark 3. Assign the bookmark to the desired group policy C. 1. Configure a Smart Tunnel application list 2. Add the rdp.exe process to this list 3. Assign the Smart Tunnel application list to the desired group policy D. 1. Upload an RDP plugin to the ASA 2. Configure a bookmark of the type rdp:// server-IP 3. Assign the bookmark list to the desired group policy Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 40 Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.) A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf C. ip:interface-config=ip src route D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0 Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 41 Which four activities does the Key Server perform in a GETVPN deployment? (Choose four.) A. authenticates group members B. manages security policy C. creates group keys D. distributes policy/keys E. encrypts endpoint traffic F. receives policy/keys G. defines group members Correct Answer: ABCD Explanation
QUESTION 42 Which algorithm provides both encryption and authentication for data plane communication? A. SHA-96 B. SHA-384 C. 3DES D. AES-256 E. AES-GCM F. RC4 Correct Answer: E Explanation
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer encounters a debug message. Which action can the engineer take to eliminate this error message? A. Use stronger encryption suite. B. Correct the VPN peer address. C. Make adjustment to IPSec replay window. D. Change the preshared key to match. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 44 Which command configures IKEv2 symmetric identity authentication? A. match identity remote address 0.0.0.0 B. authentication local pre-share C. authentication pre-share D. authentication remote rsa-sig Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 45 Which configuration is used to build a tunnel between a Cisco ASA and ISR? A. crypto map B. DMVPN C. GET VPN D. GRE with IPsec E. GRE without IPsec Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 46 Refer to the exhibit.
For the ABC Corporation, members of the NOC need the ability to select tunnel groups from a drop-down menu on the Cisco WebVPN login page. As the Cisco ASA administrator, how would you accomplish this task? A. Define a special identity certificate with multiple groups, which are defined in the certificate OU field, that will grant the certificate holder access to the named groups on the login page. B. Under Group Policies, define a default group that encompasses the required individual groups that will appear on the login page. C. Under Connection Profiles, define a NOC profile that encompasses the required individual profiles that will appear on the login page. D. Under Connection Profiles, enable “Allow user to select connection profile.” Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cisco ASDM User Guide Version 6.1 Add or Edit SSL VPN Connections > Advanced > SSL VPN This dialog box lets you configure attributes that affect what the remote user sees upon login. Fields ?Login Page Customization–Configures the look and feel of the user login page by specifying which preconfigured customization attributes to apply. The default is DfltCustomization. ?Manage–Opens the Configure GUI Customization Objects window. ?Connection Aliases–Lists in a table the existing connection aliases and their status and lets you add or delete items in that table. A connection alias appears on the user login page if the connection is configured to allow users to select a particular connection (tunnel group) at login. ?Add–Opens the Add Connection Alias window, on which you can add and enable a connection alias. ?Delete–Removes the selected row from the connection alias table. There is no confirmation or undo. ?Group URLs–Lists in a table the existing group URLs and their status and lets you add or delete items in that table. A group URL appears on the user login page if the connection is configured to allow users to select a particular group at login. ?Add–Opens the Add Group URL window, on which you can add and enable a group URL. ?Delete–Removes the selected row from the connection alias table. There is no confirmation or undo.
QUESTION 47 Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPNB. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 48 Scenario: You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office. You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly configured between the two sites. NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise. Topology:
What is being used as the authentication method on the branch ISR?A. Certifcates B. Pre-shared keys C. RSA public keys D. Diffie-Hellman Group 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: The show crypto isakmp key command shows the preshared key of “cisco”.
QUESTION 49 Scenario: You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office. You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly configured between the two sites. NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise. Topology:
In what state is the IKE security association in on the Cisco ASA? A. There are no security associations in place B. MM_ACTIVE C. ACTIVE(ACTIVE) D. QM_IDLE Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: This can be seen from the “show crypto isa sa” command:
QUESTION 50 Scenario: You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office. You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly configured between the two sites. NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise. Topology:
Which crypto map tag is being used on the Cisco ASA? A. outside_cryptomap B. VPN-to-ASA C. L2L_Tunnel D. outside_map1 Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: This is seen from the “show crypto ipsec sa” command on the ASA.
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QUESTION 1 A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown” for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as “compliant”. Which option is the reason for machine being reported as “unknown”? A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine. B. Posture policy does not support the OS. C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine. D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 2 Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security? A. Access Point B. Switch C. Wireless LAN Controller D. Authentication Server Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 3 Which two switchport commands enable MAB and allow non-802.1X capable devices to immediately run through the MAB process? (Choose two.) A. authentication order mab dot1x B. authentication order dot1x mab C. no authentication timer D. dot1x timeout tx-period E. authentication open F. mab Correct Answer: AF Explanation
QUESTION 4 Which three remediation actions are supported by the Web Agent for Windows? (Choose three.) A. Automatic Remediation B. Message text C. URL Link D. File Distribution E. AV definition update F. Launch Program Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
QUESTION 5 When using CA for identity source, which method can be used to provide real-time certificate validation? A. X.509 B. PKI C. OCSP D. CRL Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 6 Which configuration must you perform on a switch to deploy Cisco ISE in low-impact mode? A. Configure an ingress port ACL on the switchport. B. Configure DHCP snooping globally. C. Configure IP-device tracking. D. Configure BPDU filtering. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 7 Which command configures console port authorization under line con 0? A. authorization default|WORD B. authorization exec line con 0|WORD C. authorization line con 0|WORD D. authorization exec default|WORD Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 8 A security engineer has a new TrustSec project and must create a few static security group tag classifications as a proof of concept. Which two classifications can the tags be mapped to? (Choose two.) A. VLAN B. user ID C. interface D. switch ID E. MAC address Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: In static classification the tag maps to some thing (an IP, subnet, VLAN, or interface) rather than relying on an authorization from the Cisco ISE. This process of assigning the SGT is defined as “classification.” These classifications are thentransported deeper into the network for policy enforcement
QUESTION 9 Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct? A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch before an authentication result. B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased approach. C. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LLDP), and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication. D. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, and corrects the failed authentications before they cause any problems. Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10 When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web authentication portal? (Choose two.) A. ISE B. the WLCC. the access point D. the switch E. the endpoints Correct Answer: BD Explanation
QUESTION 11 Which definition of “posturing” as it relates to a general network infrastructure and access into the internal network is true? A. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about internet activity being used by the endpoint. B. The process by which an endpoint device can be monitored while connected to the network to determine if it could contain viruses or potential harmful programs running. C. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about the software that is actively running on the device. D. The process when software is uploaded to an end device before it is allowed to gain access to a secure network. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 12 Which 2 options are functional components of the posture service? A. Quarantined policy B. Posture policy C. Client provisioning D. Network provisioning Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 13 Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE? A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements C. Operating System, Posture Requirements D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 14 Which two options can a sponsor select to create bulk guest accounts from the sponsor portal? (Choose two.) A. Known B. Random C. Monthly D. Imported E. Daily F. Yearly Correct Answer: BD Explanation
QUESTION 15 Which advanced authentication setting is needed to allow an unknown device to utilize Central WebAuth? A. If Authentication failed > Continue B. If Authentication failed > Drop C. If user not found > Continue D. If user not found > Reject Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 16 Which three network access devices allow for static security group tag assignment? (Choose three.) A. intrusion prevention system B. access layer switch C. data center access switch D. load balancer E. VPN concentrator F. wireless LAN controller Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
QUESTION 17 Which three statements describe differences between TACACS+ and RADIUS? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS encrypts the entire packet, while TACACS+ encrypts only the password. B. TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet, while RADIUS encrypts only the password. C. RADIUS uses TCP, while TACACS+ uses UDP. D. TACACS+ uses TCP, while RADIUS uses UDP. E. RADIUS uses ports 1812 and 1813, while TACACS+ uses port 49. F. TACACS+ uses ports 1812 and 1813, while RADIUS uses port 49 Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
QUESTION 18 Which protocol is EAP encapsulated in for communications between the authenticator and the authentication server ? A. EAP-MD5 B. IPSec C. EAPOL D. Radius Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 19Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method is being used? A. PEAP-MSCHAP B. EAP-GTC C. EAP-TLS D. PEAP-TLSCorrect Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: These authentication methods are supported with LDAP: Extensible Authentication Protocol Generic Token Card (EAP-GTC) Extensible Authentication Protocol Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS) Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol Transport Layer Security (PEAP-)
QUESTION 20 When MAB is configured, how often are ports reauthenticated by default? A. every 60 seconds B. every 90 seconds C. every 120 seconds D. never Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 21 You discover that the Cisco ISE is failing to connect to the Active Directory server. Which option is a possible cause of the problem? A. NTP server time synchronization is configured incorrectly. B. There is a certificate mismatch between Cisco ISE and Active Directory. C. NAT statements required for Active Directory are configured incorrectly. D. The RADIUS authentication ports are being blocked by the firewall. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 22 Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE? A. the http secure-server command B. RADIUS Attribute 29 C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 23 Which debug command on a Cisco WLC shows the reason that a client session was terminated? A. debug dot11 state enable B. debug dot1x packet enable C. debug client mac addr D. debug dtls event enable E. debug ap enable cisco ap Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 24 Which technology performs CoA support Posture Service? A. External root CA B. Cisco ACS C. Cisco ISE D. Internal root CA Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 25 Which supplicants(s) and server(s) are capable of supporting EAP-CHAINING? A. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Access Control Server B. Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server C. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Identity Service Engine D. Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco Identity Service Engine Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 26 Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.) A. DES for encryption B. SHA-1 for hashing C. 1024-bit RSA D. AES GCM mode for encryption E. HMAC-SHA-1 F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
QUESTION 27 Refer to the exhibit.If a user with privilege 15 is matching this command set on Cisco ISE 2.0, which three commands can the user execute? (Choose three.) A. configure terminalB. show run C. show clock D. ping 10.10.100.1 E. exit F. show ip interface brief Correct Answer: ABF Explanation
QUESTION 28 Which RADIUS attribute is used primarily to differentiate an IEEE 802.1x request from a Cisco MAB request? A. RADIUS Attribute (5) NAS-Port B. RADIUS Attribute (6) Service-Type C. RADIUS Attribute (7) Framed-Protocol D. RADIUS Attribute (61) NAS-Port-Type Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for posture administration services in Cisco ISE? A. at least one Cisco router to store Cisco ISE profiling policies B. Cisco NAC Agents that communicate with the Cisco ISE server C. an ACL that points traffic to the Cisco ISE deployment D. the advanced license package must be installed Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 30 What attribute could be obtained from the SNMP query probe? A. FQDN B. CDP C. DHCP class identifier D. User agent Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 31 When using a DHCP probe in a Cisco ISE deployment, which type of request triggers an endpoint to be reprofiled? A. DHCP Inform B. REBINDING C. RENEWING D. INIT-REBOOT Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which two attributes must match between two Cisco ASA devices to properly enable high availability? (Choose two.) A. model, interface configuration, and RAM B. major and minor software release C. tcp dead-peer detection protocol D. 802.1x authentication identity Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 33 Refer to Following: aaa new model tacacs-server host 1.1.1.1 single connection tacas-server key cisco123 Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true? A. Authentication request contains username, encrypted password, NAS IP address, and port. B. Authentication and authorization requests are sent in a single open connection between the network device and the TACACS+ server C. Authentication request contains username, password, NAS IP address and port. D. Authentication and authorization request packets are grouped together in a single packet. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 34 Which three events immediately occur when a user clicks “Register” on their device in a single-SSID BYOD onboarding registration process (Choose three). A. CA certificate is sent to the device from Cisco ISE B. An endpoint is added to a RegistereDevices identity group C. RADIUS access request is sent to Cisco ISE D. The profile service is sent to the device from Cisco ISE E. dACL is sent to the device from Cisco ISE F. BYOD registration flag is set by Cisco ISE Correct Answer: ABF Explanation
QUESTION 35 Which two options can be pushed from Cisco ISE server as part of successful 802.1x authentication? A. Reauthentication timer B. DACL C. Vlan D. Authentication order E. Posture status F. Authentication priority Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 36 A network administration wants to set up a posture condition on Cisco ISE to check for the file name Posture.txt in C:\ on a Windows machine. Which condition must the network administrator configuration? A. Service condition B. Registry condition C. Application condition D. File conditionCorrect Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 37 Which option is the code field of n EAP packet? A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 38 Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.) A. the sensor, which contains one or more probes B. the probe manager C. a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE D. the trigger, which activates ACLs E. an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints F. a remitter tool, which fails over to redundant profilers Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
QUESTION 39 Which two Active Directory authentication methods are supported by Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. MS-CHAPv2 B. PEAP C. PPTP D. EAP-PEAP E. PPP Correct Answer: AB Explanation
QUESTION 40 What implementation must be added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints? A. the ISE B. an ACL C. a router D. a policy server Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 41 Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.) A. Unknown B. Compliant C. FailOpen D. FailClose E. Noncompliant Correct Answer: BE Explanation
QUESTION 42 Your guest-access wireless network is experiencing degraded performance and excessive latency due to user saturation. Which type of rate limiting can you implement on your network to correct the problem? A. per-device B. per-policy C. per-access point D. per-controller E. per-application Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 43 Which network access device feature can you configure to gather raw endpoint data? A. Device Sensor B. Device Classifier C. Switched Port Analyzer D. Trust Anchor Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 44 Refer to the exhibit.If the given configuration is applied to the object-group vpnservers, during which time period are external users able to connect? A. From Friday at 6:00 p.m. until Monday at 8:00 a.m. B. From Monday at 8:00 a.m. until Friday at 6:00 p.m. C. From Friday at 6:01 p.m. until Monday at 8:01 a.m. D. From Monday at 8:01 a.m. until Friday at 5:59 p.m. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 45 What are the initial steps to configure an ACS as a TACACS server? A. 1. Choose Network Devices and AAA Clients > Network Resources. 2. Click Create. B. 1. Choose Network Resources > Network Devices and AAA Clients. 2. Click Create. C. 1. Choose Network Resources > Network Devices and AAA Clients. 2. Click Manage. D. 1. Choose Network Devices and AAA Clients > Network Resources. 2. Click Install.Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46 Which statement about Cisco Management Frame Protection is true? A. It enables stations to remain in power-save mode, except at specified intervals to receive data from the access point. B. It detects spoofed MAC addresses. C. It identifies potential RF jamming attacks. D. It protects against frame and device spoofing. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 47 CORRECT TEXT The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the Cisco Catalyst switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to an 802.1X enabled switch port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantto log in and connect to the network. Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it connect to the network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is now configured to use 802.1X authentication only. To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the network printer to authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9. Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all the requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE endpoint database and etc… Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CLI to: Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC address and: Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication if requested by a 802.1X supplicant Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful The switch enable password is Cisco For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network printer will be unplugged then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required configurations on the Fa0/19 switch port. Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE GUI To access the switch CLI, click the Switch icon in the topology diagramCorrect Answer: Review the explanation for full configuration and solution. Explanation Explanation/Reference: Initial configuration for fa 0/19 that is already done:
AAA configuration has already been done for us. We need to configure mac address bypass on this port to achieve the goal stated in the question. To do this we simply need to add this command under the interface: mab Then do a shut/no shut on the interface. Verification:
QUESTION 48 DRAG DROP A security engineer is deploying Cisco ISE for a company’s guest user services. Drag and drop the Cisco ISE persona on the left onto its function on the right.Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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CCNA Collaboration Certification
Job Title: Video Network engineer, IP voice and IP network engineer
Introduction: Collaboration and video skills that are integrated with voice, video, data, and mobile application capabilities.
For network video engineers, IP telephony and IP network engineers who want to develop and upgrade collaboration and video skills based on the integration of voice, video, data, and mobile applications, CISCO CCNA Collaboration certification is a job-centric training, certification program. It will enable you to maximize your investment in education and increase your professional value by providing you with the skills to help your IT organization meet the business needs of these technology transformations.
CCNA Collaboration Certification Training 210-060 CICD Dumps
Exam number: 210-060
Associated CERTIFICATIONS: CCNA Collaboration
Duration: 75 Minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Passing score: 825
Test instructions：
This test examines candidates’ understanding of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. Candidates will be tested for administrator and end-user interface, phone and mobile capabilities, and maintenance knowledge of Cisco UC Solutions.
geekcert CCNA Collaboration Certification 210-060 CICD Training
Preparation time: 5 days
Language: English
Course Object: IT Professionals
Course Level: Skilled
Course Technology: Network design
geekcert CCNA Collaboration Certification 210-060 CICD Training Introduction
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Equipment (CICD) teaches learners how to maintain and run a Cisco Unified Communications Manager,Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express,cisco The Unity connection and Cisco Unified presence Cisco Unified Communications solution. This course provides learners with the knowledge and skills to implement federated-level capabilities in Cisco Unified Communications.
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CCNA Collaboration Certification 210-060 Dumps CICD Training Object
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Working knowledge of integrated voice and data networks
Cisco iOS gateway
Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Cisco Unity connection
Upon completion of this training, students will be able to:
Describes the components of the Cisco Unified Communications solution and identifies call signaling and media flow
In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express,cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified C Overview of providing administrator and end user interface options in the Ommunications Manager im and resence service
Learn about the call process in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Perform endpoint and end user management tasks in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Describes the telephony features supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Manage users in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence service, and enable the most common features for two applications describes how to maintain Cisco Unified Communications Solution
Download a complete list of topics in PDF format
1.0 Description of Cisco Unified Communications Solution features 15%
2.0 configuring end users and associated devices 24%
3.0 Configuring voice messages and Status 27%
4.0 maintain Cisco Unified Communication System 10% 5.0 provide end user support 24%
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642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
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300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
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300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format
1.0 Advanced Addressing and Routing Solutions for Enterprise Networks 22%
2.0 Advanced Enterprise Campus Networks 20%
3.0 WANs for Enterprise Networks 17%
4.0 Enterprise Data Center Integration 17%
5.0 Security Services 13%
6.0 Network Services 11%
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Question No : 1
Which two features provide resiliency in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. VTP
C. encryption
D. vPC
E. VRF
300-320 exam Answer: A,D
Question No : 2
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?
A. VSS is a requirement.
B. Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C. The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D. Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.
Answer: C
Question No : 3
What is the latest Cisco high-availability solution?
A. VRRP
B. HSRP
C. VSS
D. GLBP 300-320 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 4
A network engineer must provide 40mb connections from the data center to the corporate office and two remote offices. What WAN connectivity option will outsource the routing in cooperation with the service provider?
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Multipoint Service
C. MPLS VPN
D. VPLS
Answer: C
Question No : 5
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
300-320 pdf Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 6
Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. VLAN
D. vPC
Answer: D
Question No : 7
Which two technologies provide web and URL filtering and mitigate zero-day malware?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco CWS
B. Cisco WSA
C. Cisco GETVPN
D. Cisco ESA
E. NAT/PAT
300-320 vce Answer: A,B
Question No : 8
Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A
Question No : 9
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
300-320 exam Answer: D
Question No : 10
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C
Question No : 11
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies. 300-320 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 12
Port security supports which type of port?
A. SPAN destination port
B. EtherChannel port-channel port
C. nonnegotiating trunk port
D. DTP-enabled trunk port
Answer: C
Question No : 13
What two sensor types exist in an IDS/IPS solution? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. anomaly based
C. policy based
D. network based
E. signature
300-320 pdf Answer: A,D
Question No : 14
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D
Question No : 15
What is the correct state between two BGP peers that are neighbors?
A. active
B. operational
C. established
D. up
300-320 vce Answer: C
Question No : 16
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Answer: C
Question No : 17
Which option lists the EIGRP minimum timer settings for hello and dead timers in seconds?
A. 4 and 6
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 6
D. both 6
300-320 exam Answer: C
Question No : 18
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on
the right. 300-320 dumps Answer:
C:\Users\Kamran\Desktop\1.jpg occurs first – Failure detection time occurs second – Event propagation time occurs third –
SFP run time (small form-factor pluggable)occurs fourth – RIB FIB update time
Question No : 20
Which OSPF option can you configure to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone
through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
Answer: B
Question No : 21
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can
facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
300-320 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION 22
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 23
Which three major points are important for network virtualization to separate logical networks on a shared physical
infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs
B. data plane
C. control plane
D. VPNs
E. VSANs
F. management plane
300-320 vce Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Which feature set enables the full OSPF routing process when using a Cisco Catalyst 3750X Switch?
A. LAN base
B. IP base
C. IP services
D. enterprise access
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
If your enterprise is connected to 2 ISP, which method could you use to prevent being used as a transit network?
(Choose Two)
A. filter outbound
B. filter inbound
C. throw both ISP
D. choose only one ISP
E. Allow every routes inbound
300-320 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which two options are VRF components. (Choose two.)
A. RIB
B. VSS
C. FIB
D. HSRP 300-320 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 28
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit
Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
Route.com is a small IT corporation that is attempting to implement the network shown in the exhibit. Currently the implementation is partially completed. OSPF has been configured on routers Chicago and NewYork. The SO/O interface on Chicago and the SO/1 interface on NewYork are in Area 0. The loopbackO interface on NewYork is in Area
1. However, they cannot ping from the serial interface of the Seattle router to the loopback interface of the NewYork router. You have been asked to complete the implementation to allow this ping.
ROUTE.com\’s corporate implementation guidelines require:
•The OSPF process ID for all routers must be 10.
•The routing protocol for each interface must be enabled under the routing process.
•The routing protocol must be enabled for each interface using the most specific wildcard mask possible.
•The serial link between Seattle and Chicago must be in OSPF area 21.
•OSPF area 21 must not receive any inter-area or external routes. Network Information Seattle S0/0 192.168.16.5/30 –
Link between Seattle and Chicago Secret Password: cisco Chicago S0/0 192.168.54.9/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork S0/1 192.168.16.6/30 – Link between Seattle and Chicago Secre Password: cisco NewYork S0/1 192.168.54.10/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork Loopback0 172.16.189.189 Secret Password: cisco
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 25
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations 300-101 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 26
Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?
A. ip routing ipv6
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 routing
D. ip classless
E. ipv6 cef
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router,
accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny
ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255,
192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable
A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?
A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP. 300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC?
A. redistribute ospf 1
B. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C. redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the
16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you
conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled. 300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
What percent of R1\’s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A network administrator uses GRE over IPSec to connect two branches together via VPN tunnel. Which one of the
following is the reason for using GRE over IPSec?
A. GRE over IPSec provides better QoS mechanism and is faster than other WAN technologies.
B. GRE over IPSec decreases the overhead of the header.
C. GRE supports use of routing protocol, while IPSec supports encryption.
D. GRE supports encryption, while IPSec supports use of routing protocol.
300-101 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
What is the benefit of deploying IPv6 in a campus network using dual stack mode?
A. Dual Stack Mode takes advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel within a network.
B. IPv4 and IPv6 run alongside one another and have no dependency on each other to function
C. IPv4 and IPv6 share network resources.
D. IPv6 can depend on existing IPv4 routing, QoS, security, and multicast policies.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
300-101 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 40
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit showing complete command output. What type of OSPF router is Router A?
A. internal router
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. edge router
Correct Answer: C
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Free Cisco 300-101 Dumps Implementing Cisco IP Routing Exam Test Online.
Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format (includes Evolving Technology v1.1)
1.0 Network Principles 10%
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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.
Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
Answer:
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
400-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
400-101 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table 400-101 dumps Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.
How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%- 25%-25%.
This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash
function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.
geekcert 400-101 Exam Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 1379
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admin 
When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the
Based on the provided ASDM configuration for the remote ASA, which one of the following is correct?
Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method is being used?
If a user with privilege 15 is matching this command set on Cisco ISE 2.0, which three commands can the user execute? (Choose three.)
If the given configuration is applied to the object-group vpnservers, during which time period are external users able to connect?
Correct Answer: Review the explanation for full configuration and solution.
Explanation
Explanation
