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98-367 Exam Overview

Security Fundamentals

98-367-exam
98-367-exam

Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams.

Expertise required for 98-367 Exam:

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

Who Benefits

  • Candidates with basic safety knowledge and skills

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Key Learning Areas: Understand operating system security

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Understand user authentication:Multifactor authentication; physical and virtual smart cards; Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS); biometrics; use Run As to perform administrative tasks

Understand permissions:File system permissions; share permissions; registry; Active Directory; enable or disable inheritance; behavior when moving or copying files within the same disk or on another disk; multiple groups with different permissions; basic permissions and advanced permissions; take ownership; delegation; inheritance

Understand password policies:Password complexity; account lockout; password length; password history; time between password changes; enforce by using Group Policies; common attack methods; password reset procedures; protect domain user account passwords

Understand audit policies:Types of auditing; what can be audited; enable auditing; what to audit for specific purposes; where to save audit information; how to secure audit information

Understand encryption:Encrypting file system (EFS); how EFS-encrypted folders impact moving/copying files; BitLocker (To Go); TPM; software-based encryption; MAIL encryption and signing and other uses; virtual private network (VPN); public key/private key; encryption algorithms; certificate properties; certificate services; PKI/certificate services infrastructure; token devices; lock down devices to run only trusted applications

Understand malware:Buffer overflow; viruses, polymorphic viruses; worms; Trojan horses; spyware; ransomware; adware; rootkits; backdoors; zero day attacks

The importance of completing MTA certification:

Successfully passed the 98-367 exam to get the MTA certification. MTA certification provides the foundation necessary to obtain certification from Microsoft Certified Solution Partners (MCSA) or Microsoft Certified Solution Developer (MCSD). MTA certification creates a new entry point to help people who are not familiar with IT start their careers.

Tips for Success | 98-367 Exam

1.Be prepared before the exam so that you can relax on the day of the exam and focus on taking the exam yourself. Conduct long-term testing.
2. I learned a lot from testing. Sometimes, in part of the test, the test will teach you what you need to know in another part of the test. Look for contextual clues that can help you determine the right direction and make no obvious mistakes.

Why? Microsoft 98-367 dump Pdf

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Get The Microsoft 98-367 Pdf Questions

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Advised to get the Microsoft 98-367 practice exam questions.That’s since this Introduction to Security Fundamentals questions pdf consists from the real exam interface.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of viruses protects itself from antivirus programs and is more difficult to trace?
A. Armored virus
B. MBR virus
C. Boot sector virus
D. Macro virus
Correct Answer: A
An armored virus is designed to stop antivirus researchers from examining its code by using various methods to make
tracing and disassembling difficult. This type of virus also protects itself from antivirus programs, making it more difficult
to trace. Answer: D is incorrect. A macro virus is a virus that consists of a macro code which infects the system. A
Macro virus can infect a system rapidly. Since this virus has VB event handlers, it is dynamic in nature and displays
random activation. The victim has only to open a file having a macro virus in order to infect the system with the virus.
DMV, Nuclear, and Word Concept are some good examples of macro viruses. Answer: C is incorrect. A boot sector
virus infects the master boot files of the hard disk or floppy disk. Boot record programs are responsible for booting the
operating system. The boot sector virus copies these programs into another part of the hard disk or overwrites these
files. Answer: B is incorrect. A Master boot record (MBR) virus replaces the boot sector data with its own malicious
code. Every time when the computer starts up, the boot sector virus executes.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a use of Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool?
A. To gain unauthorized remote access to a computer and launch additional attacks.
B. To distribute itself automatically from one computer to another via network connections.
C. To remove the malware.
D. To perform repetitive or time-consuming task on a network.
Correct Answer: C
Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool is used to remove the malware.
Answer: D is incorrect. A bot is defined as a program that is used to perform repetitive or time- consuming task on a
network. Answer: A is incorrect. Rootkit is used to gain unauthorized remote access to a computer and launch
additional
attacks.
Answer: B is incorrect. A worm can automatically distribute itself from one computer to another via network
connections.

QUESTION 3
Mark works as a Network Administrator fot Blue Well Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Mark is facing a
series of problems with email spam and identifying theft via phishing scams. He wants to implement the various security
measures and to provide some education because it is related to the best practices while using email. Which of the
following can Mark use to minimize the spam amount that is hitting the Microsoft Exchange server of the company?
A. Enable reverse DNS lookup
B. Use Read-only Domain Controller
C. Add Sender Policy Framework
D. Permit User Account Control
Correct Answer: A
To minimize the amount of spam that is hitting the Microsoft Exchange server, it is required to enable reverse DNS
lookup on the SMTP virtual server. It forces a system to crosscheck the domain name with a PTR record (IP address
associated with the domain name) and if the IP address is not matched the record associated with that domain name, it
will not delivered.
Answer: C is incorrect. SPF is used to permit the administrator to configure the server to establish who is acceptable to
send email from their domain. Answer: D is incorrect. User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security
infrastructure introduced with Microsoft\\’s Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 operating systems, with a more
relaxed version also present in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2. It aims to improve the security of Microsoft
Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an administrator authorizes an increase or
elevation.
Answer: B is incorrect. Read-only Domain Controller (RODC) is a domain controller that hosts the read-only partition of
the Active Directory database. RODC was developed by Microsoft typically to be deployed in a branch office
environment.
RODC is a good option to enhance security by placing it in a location where physical security is poor. RODC can also
be placed at locations having relatively few users and a poor network bandwidth to the main site. As only the read-only
partition of the Active Directory database is hosted by RODC, a little local IT knowledge is required to maintain it.

QUESTION 4
You are trying to connect to an FTP server on the Internet from a computer in a school lab. You cannot get a
connection. You try on another computer with the same results. The computers in the lab are able to browse the
Internet.
You are able to connect to this FTP server from home.
What could be blocking the connection to the server?
A. A layer-2 switch
B. A wireless access point
C. A firewall
D. A layer-2 hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is
worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-367 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-367 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are required to enable for preventing the users from downloading and installing software from the
Internet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Software restriction policies
B. PTR record
C. User Account Control
D. Anti-Virus software
Correct Answer: AC
Answer: C and A
It is required to enable User Account Control on all Windows 7 computers and to configure software restriction policies
to prevent the users from downloading and installing software from the Internet.

QUESTION 7
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web browser receives
information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser settings will Sam use to accomplish
this?
A. Security
B. Certificate
C. Cookies
D. Proxy server
Correct Answer: A
The Web browser\\’s Security setting controls the way in which a Web browser receives information and downloads
content from Web sites. In Internet Explorer, users can access the Security setting from Tools menu > Internet Options
>
Security tab page.
Answer: C is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web
servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies
are
stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and
settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a
Web
server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the
information. The Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers. Answer: D is incorrect. Proxy server
setting is used to connect to the Internet through a proxy server.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following applications captures network packets as they traverse a network and displays them to the
attacker?
A. Keylogger
B. Sniffer
C. Key fob
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: B
A sniffer is a software tool that is used to capture any network traffic. Since a sniffer changes the NIC of the LAN card
into promiscuous mode, the NIC begins to record incoming and outgoing data traffic across the network. A sniffer attack
is
a passive attack because the attacker does not directly connect with the target host. This attack is most often used to
grab logins and passwords from network traffic. Tools such as Ethereal, Snort, Windump, EtherPeek, Dsniff are some
good
examples of sniffers. These tools provide many facilities to users such as graphical user interface, traffic statistics
graph, multiple sessions tracking, etc. Answer: D is incorrect. A protocol analyzer for particular types of networks is a
computer
software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network or part of a network. As
data streams flow across the network, the protocol analyzer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and
analyzes
its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer: A is incorrect. A keylogger is a software tool that traces all or specific activities of a user on a computer. Once a
keylogger is installed on a victim\\’s computer, it can be used for recording all keystrokes on the victim\\’s computer in a
predefined log file. An attacker can configure a log file in such a manner that it can be sent automatically to a predefined
e-mail address. Some of the main features of a keylogger are as follows:
It can record all keystrokes.
It can capture all screenshots.
It can record all instant messenger conversations. It can be remotely installed.
It can be delivered via FTP or e-mail.
Answer: C is incorrect. Key fobs are security devices used by telecommuters to provide one part of a three way match
for a user to log on to a secured network.

geekcert 98-367 exam questions-q8

These are display-only devices that algorithmically generate security codes as part of a challenge/response authentication system. This code usually changes very quickly and is used with the PIN for authentication.

QUESTION 9
Mark works as a Network Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Mark wants to
implement stronger authentication measures for the customers, as well as eliminate IT staff from logging on with high
privileges. Mark has various options, but he is required to keep the processes easy for the helpdesk staff. Which of the
following is a service can the staff uses as an alternative of signing in with elevate privileges?
A. Secondary Logon-Run As
B. Security log
C. Hardware firewall
D. Encrypted network configuration
Correct Answer: A
Secondary Logon (Run As) is defined as a starting programs and tools in local administrative context. Windows
secondary logon is used to permit administrators to log on with a non-administrative account and be able to perform the
several administrative tasks without logging off by using trusted administrative programs in administrative contexts.
Answer: B is incorrect. The security log is generated by a firewall or other security device. It is used to define list of
events that could affect the security of data or infrastructure, such as access attempts or commands, and the names of
the users participating in this illegal process. Answer: C is incorrect. Hardware firewall is defined as the important part of
the system and network set-up on a broadband connection. It can be effective with small or no configuration, and is
used to protect every machine on a local network. The hardware firewalls will have at least four network ports for
connecting to other computers. This type of firewall uses packet filtering for checking the header of a packet in order to
check its source and destination. The information obtained in this manner is compared to a set of predefined or usercreated rules and then the packet is forwarded or dropped.

QUESTION 10
You are trying to enable BitLocker on your father\\’s computer.
What is the purpose of the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) when it is used by BitLocker?
A. to store an encrypted file allocation table for the protected drive
B. to provide a co-processor that encrypts/decrypts data
C. to verify the integrity of the early boot components
D. to store the hashed data produced by BitLocker encryption
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Mark works as a Desktop Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. He has bees
assigned a project to upgrade the browsers to Internet Explorer (IE) 8 for working with the latest Internet technologies
Mark wants to ensure that the company uses a number of the security features built into the browser while maintaining
functionality within the company\\’s intranet. Mark is also educating his users to be good Internet citizens and use the
safe web sur?ng. Mark asked his team to be assured that they are on a secured website. What they will do?
A. Take a look for a padlock in the lower right corner of the browser and https:// in the address bar.
B. Provide protection against a Distributed Denial of Services attack.
C. Call a team member while behaving to be someone else for gaining access to sensitive information.
D. Go into the Internet Options, select the Security, and add the intranet site to the list of Local Intranet Site.
Correct Answer: A
To be sure that the team members are on a secure site, they are required to look for a padlock in the lower right corner
of the browser and https:// in the address bar. It will not guarantee that the site is secure but can be used. Answer: D is
incorrect. The Internet zone feature in IE 8 can be configured and users are enabled to easily browse the local intranet
without disturbing the security levels by using the following steps: 1.Go into the Internet Options and select the Security.
2.Add the intranet site to the list of Local Intranet Site. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering can be defined as any
type of behavior used to inadvertently or deliberately aid an attacker in gaining access to an authorized user\\’s
password or other sensitive information. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose
useful information such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain
access to a user\\’s computer or network. This method involves mental ability of people to trick someone rather than
their technical skills. A user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name, password, computer
name, IP address, employee ID, or other information that can be misused. Answer: B While stressing the
Con?dentiality, Integrity, and Availability triangle in the training of users, the process of providing availability is related to
security training to ensure the protection against a Distributed Denial of Services attack.

QUESTION 12
Which two characteristics should you recommend for a user\\’s domain password? (Choose two.)
A. Hard to guess
B. Includes Unicode characters
C. Easy to remember
D. Easy to increment
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: http://www.usewisdom.com/computer/passwords.html

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a central, secure database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information,
software configuration information, and system security policies?
A. Registry
B. Program files folder
C. DLL file
D. Configuration file
Correct Answer: A
The registry is a central, secure database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information, software
configuration information, and system security policies.
The registry is the central storage for all configuration data. It stores Windows operating system configuration, computer
hardware configuration, configuration information about Win32-based applications, and user preferences in a
hierarchical
database file.
Answer: B, C, and D are incorrect. The Program files folder, DLL file, or Configuration file is not a central, secure
database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information, software configuration information, and
system
security policies.

Please visit variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

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No one wants to score poor grades or fail the 98-388 exam, it all depends on your decision, nothing more. The success of the 98-388 exam can have a big impact on your career, especially if you are an IT professional. Many IT professionals want success, but they fail. Just because of their choice, but if you get the latest 98-388 study materials, you can easily achieve excellent results in the 98-388 exam. https://www.geekcert.com/98-388.html help you easy to pass.Real 98-388 Dumps from geekcert.com.

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98-388 Exam Overview

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388-exam
98-388-exam

This exam is designed for application developers working with Java 6 SE or later, secondary and immediate post-secondary level students of software development, or entry-level software developers. Learners should have at least 150 hours or instruction or hands-on experience with Java, are familiar with its features and capabilities, and understand how to write, debug and maintain well-formed, well documented Java code.

Expertise required for 98-388 Exam:

  • Understand Java fundamentals (15-20%)
  • Work with data types, variables, and expressions (40-45%)
  • Implement flow control (15-20%)
  • Perform object-oriented programming (10-15%)
  • Compile and debug code (5-10%)

Who Benefits

  • Application developers working with Java 6 SE or later
  • Secondary and immediate post-secondary level students of software development, or entry-level software developers.

Maybe you want to know other Microsoft exams.

Key Learning Areas: Work with data types, variables, and expressions

98-388-exam-key

Declare and use primitive data type variables: Data types, including byte, char, int, double, short, long, float, boolean; identify when precision is lost; initialization; how primitives differ from wrapper object types such as Integer and Boolean.

Construct and evaluate code that manipulates strings: String class and string literals, comparisons, concatenation, case and length; String.format methods; string operators; converting a primitive data type to a string; the immutable nature of strings; initialization; null.

Construct and evaluate code that creates, iterates, and manipulates arrays and array lists: One- and two-dimensional arrays, including initialization, null, size, iterating elements, accessing elements; array lists, including adding and removing elements, traversing the list.

Construct and evaluate code that performs parsing, casting and conversion: Implementing code that casts between primitive data types, converts primitive types to equivalent object types, or parses strings to numbers.

Construct and evaluate arithmetic expressions : Arithmetic operators, assignment, compound assignment operators, operator precedence.

The importance of completing MTA certification:

Successfully passed the 98-388 exam to get the MTA certification. MTA certification provides the foundation necessary to obtain certification from Microsoft Certified Solution Partners (MCSA) or Microsoft Certified Solution Developer (MCSD). MTA certification creates a new entry point to help people who are not familiar with IT start their careers.

Tips for Success | 98-388 Exam

1.Be prepared before the exam so that you can relax on the day of the exam and focus on taking the exam yourself. Conduct long-term testing.
2. I learned a lot from testing. Sometimes, in part of the test, the test will teach you what you need to know in another part of the test. Look for contextual clues that can help you determine the right direction and make no obvious mistakes.

Why? Microsoft 98-388 dump Pdf

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Advised to get the Microsoft 98-388 practice exam questions.That’s since this Introduction to Programming Using Java questions pdf consists from the real exam interface.

QUESTION 1
Traders hires you to write a Java program to manage account openings. To open a new account, a user must meet one
the following requirements:
be over 65 years old and have a minimum annual income of 10,000
be at least 21 and have an annual income greater than 25,000
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate operator to the correct position. Each operator
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q1-2

References: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/java_basic_operators.htm

QUESTION 2
You write the following code:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q2

You need to determine the values of the data1, data2, data3, and data4 variables.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q2-2

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q2-3

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/util/Scanner.html

QUESTION 3
You are writing a Java method that evaluates an arithmetic formula.
The method accepts an int value named number, raises the value to the second power, and returns the negative value
of the result.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct position. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You need to evaluate the following code. Line numbers are included for reference only.

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q4-2

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q4-3

QUESTION 5
You are writing a Java method.
The method accepts a two-dimensional String array and prints the content of each array element.
The size of each dimension of the array might be different.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://www.tutorialgateway.org/two-dimensional-array-in-java/

QUESTION 6
You are writing a Java program.
The program must meet the following requirements:
Truncate firstName to its first five characters
Set output to a string that contains the firstName and the number of characters in firstName
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q6-2

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/StringBuilder.html
https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/lang/stringbuilder_substring_end.htm

QUESTION 7
You have the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only.

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q7

The code does not compile.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the action is required to resolve the compilation error. Otherwise,
select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q7-2

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q7-3

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/javaOO/accesscontrol.html

QUESTION 8
You are interviewing for a job at Adventure Works, Inc. The hiring manager asks you to create a single console
program.
The program takes multiple arguments from the command line and writes them to the screen in the same order as they
were typed on the command line.
Which three code segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code segments
from the list of code segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q8-2

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/getStarted/cupojava/netbeans.html

QUESTION 9
The question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have the following class
definition:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q9

The logError method can be invoked by code in all classes in the same package as the Logger class.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect,select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. only by the Logger class
C. only by the Logger class and classes in the same package that inherit from it
D. by all classes in all packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need to evaluate the following code segment. Line numbers are included for reference only.

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the code. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q10-2

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q10-3

QUESTION 11
You are interviewing for a job as a Java developer. You need to demonstrate your understanding of switch statements.
For each of the following code segments, select Yes if the code segment can be changed to a switch statement with up
to three case statements. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q11-2

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/switch.html

QUESTION 12
You are writing a Java console program. The program must meet the following requirements: Read a line of text entered
by the user
Print each word in the text to the console on a separate line How should you complete the code? To answer, select the
appropriate code segments in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q12-2

References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/util/Scanner.html

QUESTION 13
You have the following code:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q13

You need to create an int array named numbers initialized with num1, num2, and num3.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct position. Each code
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

geekcert 98-388 exam questions-q13-3

Example:
int[] numbers = new int[] {num1, num2, num3}
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/arrays.html
https://alvinalexander.com/blog/post/java/java-faq-create-array-int-example-syntax

Please visit variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

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The latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A network engineer needs to configure an SVI on a Cisco Nexus Series switch After configuring VLAN 10, which set of
commands must the engineer enter, to complete the SVI configuration?geekcert 200-150 exam question q1

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which call processing stage can an alias be changed by a rule into another form?
A. Search Rules
B. Find Rules
C. Hunt Rules
D. Conference Rules
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps9441/ps9670/white_paper_c11-465436.html

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop each port description on the left to the port type on the right required to support it.
Select and Place:geekcert 200-150 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

geekcert 200-150 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
Which situation results in a flashing blue status LED on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch I/O module?
A. The switch has just been powered on, and the module is resetting.
B. The module is resetting and both ejector levers are out.
C. The module has been inserted during the initialization process.
D. The module could not power up because of insufficient power.
E. The operator has activated this LED to identify this module in the chassis.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?
A. The ability to register desktop phones
B. Global phone books
C. SRST redundancy
D. The ability to register video endpoints
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C
“What happens though when the switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not included in the
table? In that case the switch will just broadcast/flood the frame with the unknown destination address to all of its ports
(apart from the port where the frame came from). This process is called unknown unicast flooding. “
http://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/09/how-a-switch-works/

QUESTION 8
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the server is still unable
to access the shared storage.
Which command will resolve this issue?
A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset
B. zoneset activate zoneset2
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. copy running onfig startup-config
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which conferencing solution is designed for scalable meetings, training and events?
A. Spark
B. Telepresence Server
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Correct Answer: AB

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[Latest Upload] Free and effective Oracle Database 12c 1z0-063 exam dumps, 1z0-063 exam Practice Test

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Latest effective Oracle Database 12c 1z0-063 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which three RMAN persistent settings can be set for a database? 

A. backup retention policy 

B. default backup device type 

C. default section size for backups 

D. default destinations for backups 

E. multiple backup device types for a single backup 

Correct Answer: ABD 

Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/setup004.htm#i10197 

QUESTION 2

The CATDBI2c database contains an Oracle Database 12c catalog schema owned by the rc12c user. 

The CATDB11 database contains an Oracle Database l1g catalog schema owned by the RCII user. 

A database with DBID=1423241 is registered in the CATDB11 catalog. Both the recovery catalog databases are open. 

In the CATDB12c database, you execute the commands: 

Srman 

RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rc12c/pass12c8catdbI2c 

RMAN> IMPOST CATALOG rc1l/pwdcatl19catdbl1 DBID=I423241; 

What is the outcome of the import? 

A. It fails because the target database and recovery catalog database are of different versions. 

B. It succeeds and all global scripts in the sc:: catalog that have the same name as existing global scripts in the RC12C

catalog are automatically renamed. 

C. It succeeds but the database is not automatically registered in the Rc12c catalog. 

D. It fails because RMAN is not connected to the target database with DBID=1423241. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 3

You want to migrate your Oracle 11g database as a pluggable database (PDB) in a multitenant container database

(CDB). The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task: 

1.

 Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database. 

2.

 Upgrade the source database to a 12c version. 

3.

 Create a new PDB in the target container database. 

4.

 Perform a full transportable export on the source database withthe VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp

utility. 

5.

 Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database. 

6.

 Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE

role and specify the full transportable import options. 

7.

 Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function. Identify the

correct order of the required steps. 

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 

B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 

C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7 

D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 

E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 4

While performing database backupto tape via the media manager interface, you notice that tape streaming is not

happening because RMAN is not sending data blocks fast enough to the tape drive. 

Which two actions would you take for tape streaming to happen during the backup? 

A. Configure backup optimization. 

B. Configure the channel to increase maxopenfiles. 

C. Configure a backup policy by using incremental backups. 

D. Configure the channel to increase capacity with the rate parameter. 

E. Configure the channel to adjust the tape buffer size byusing the 3LKSIZE option. 

F. Configure large_pool, if not done already. Alternatively, you can increase the size of 

G. LARGE_POOL. 

Correct Answer: AD 

QUESTION 5

Which two statements are true about tablespaces in multitenant container databases (CDBs)? 

A. Default permanent tablespaces can be shared across pluggable databases (PDBs). 

B. The current container must be set to root to create or modify the default temporary tablespace or tablespace group

for a CDB. 

C. Each PDB can have its own default temporary tablespace. 

D. The default permanent tablespace for a PDB can be changed only by a local user with the required permissions. 

E. The amount of space that each PDB can usein a shared temporary tablespace must be set at the CDB level. 

Correct Answer: AB 

QUESTION 6

You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). You

are connected to cdb$root as thesys user. You execute the commands: 

SQL> CREATE USER C##ADMIN IDENTIFIED BY orcll23; 

SQL> CREATE ROLE C##CONNECT; 

SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION, CREATE TABLE, SELECT ANY TABLE TO C##CONNECT; 

SQL> GRANT C##CONNECT to C##ADMIN CONTAINER=ALL; 

Which statement istrue about the c##connect role? 

A. It is created only in cdb$root and cannot be granted to the c##admin user with the container=all clause. 

B. It is granted to the c##admin user only in the CDB. 

C. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted only to a local user in a PDB. 

D. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted object and system privileges for a PDB. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 7

You created a tablespace with this statement: 

CREATE BIGFILE TABLESPACE adtbs 

DATAFILE \\’/proddb/data/adtbs.dbf\\’ SIZE 10G; 

The tablespace is nearly full and youneed to avoid any out of space errors for the load of a 5 gig table. 

Which two alter statements will achieve this? 

A. ALTER TA3LESPACE adtbs RESI2E 20G; 

B. ALTER TA3LESPACE adtbs ADD DATAFILE; 

C. ALTER TABLESPACE adtbs AUTOEXTEND ON; 

D. ALTER TA3LESPACE adtbs ADD DATAFILE \\’/proddb/data/adtbsl.dbf\\’ SIZE 1QG; 

E. ALTER TA3LESPACE adtbs MODIFY DATAFILE \\’/proddb/data/adtbs.dbf AUTOEXTEND ON; 

Correct Answer: AC 

Explanation: http://www.techonthenet.com/oracle/tablespaces/alter_tablespace.php 

QUESTION 8

Which two options can be configured for an existing database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? 

A. Database Resident Connection Pooling 

B. Oracle Suggested Backup Strategy 

C. Database Vault in ORACLE_HOME 

D. Nondefaultblocksizetablespaces 

E. Configure Label Security 

Correct Answer: DE 

QUESTION 9

Your production database is running in archivelog mode. You use RMAN with a recovery catalog to back up your

database to media and the database is uniquely identified in the recovery catalog. 

You want to create a test database from the production database and allow the production database to remain open

during the duplicate process. You restore the database backups to a new host with the same directory structure as the 

production database and want to use the recovery catalog for future backups after the database is successfully restored

to the new host. 

How would you achieve this? 

A. by using the RMAN switch command to set the new location for the data files 

B. by using the RMAN duplicate command with nofilenamecheck to recover the database to the new host 

C. by using the RMAN duplicate command with dbid and set nekname for tablespace to recover the database to the

new host 

D. by creating a new database in the new host, and then using the RMAN recover command 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 10

In the SPFILE, UNDOJTABLESPACEis Set to UNDOTBS. 

You rename the undotbs undo tablespace: 

ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs RENAME TO undotbs_old; 

Which statement is true? 

A. The tablespace will be renamed but the data file headers will not be updated. 

B. The statement will fail because you cannot rename an undo tablespace. 

C. The tablespace will be renamed and all the changes will be logged in the alert log. 

D. The tablespace will be renamed and a message written to the alert log indicating that you should change the

corresponding initialization parameter. 

E. You must set the undo_tablespace parameter to some other tablespace name before renaming undotbs. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 11

Which three statements are true about unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? 

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode. 

B. The PDB must be dosed. 

C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB. 

D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB) 

E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB. 

F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk. 

Correct Answer: BDE 

Explanation: B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it. 

D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an

endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This

means,quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference. 

E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and

destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that thePDB\\’s datafiles can remain in place. Reference: Oracle White

Paper, Oracle Multitenant 

QUESTION 12

You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance: 

NEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0 

MEMORY__TARGET=500M 

PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=90M 

SGA_TARGET=270M 

Which two statements are true? 

A. The memory_max_target parameter is automatically set to 500 MB. 

B. The pga_aggregate_target and sga_target parameters are automatically set to zero. 

C. The value of the memory_max_target parameter remains zero for the database instance. 

D. The lower limits of the pga_aggregate_target and sga_target parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB respectively. 

E. The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but

pga_aggregate_target and sga_target parameters are set to nonzero values. 

Correct Answer: CE 

QUESTION 13

You issue the command: 

SQL>ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE; 

Which statement is true about the command? 

A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specified in the diagnostic_dest initialization

parameter. 

B. It creates a file that contains theSQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file. 

C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file. 

D. It creates a binary backup of the control file. 

Correct Answer: B

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