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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format
1.0 Advanced Addressing and Routing Solutions for Enterprise Networks 22%
2.0 Advanced Enterprise Campus Networks 20%
3.0 WANs for Enterprise Networks 17%
4.0 Enterprise Data Center Integration 17%
5.0 Security Services 13%
6.0 Network Services 11%

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Question No : 1
Which two features provide resiliency in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. VTP
C. encryption
D. vPC
E. VRF
300-320 exam Answer: A,D

Question No : 2
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?
A. VSS is a requirement.
B. Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C. The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D. Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
What is the latest Cisco high-availability solution?
A. VRRP
B. HSRP
C. VSS
D. GLBP
300-320 dumps Answer: C

Question No : 4
A network engineer must provide 40mb connections from the data center to the corporate office and two remote offices. What WAN connectivity option will outsource the routing in cooperation with the service provider?
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Multipoint Service
C. MPLS VPN
D. VPLS
Answer: C

Question No : 5
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
300-320 pdf Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. VLAN
D. vPC
Answer: D

Question No : 7
Which two technologies provide web and URL filtering and mitigate zero-day malware?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco CWS
B. Cisco WSA
C. Cisco GETVPN
D. Cisco ESA
E. NAT/PAT
300-320 vce Answer: A,B

Question No : 8
Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
300-320 exam Answer: D

Question No : 10
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

Question No : 11
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
300-320 dumps Answer: C

Question No : 12
Port security supports which type of port?
A. SPAN destination port
B. EtherChannel port-channel port
C. nonnegotiating trunk port
D. DTP-enabled trunk port
Answer: C

Question No : 13
What two sensor types exist in an IDS/IPS solution? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. anomaly based
C. policy based
D. network based
E. signature
300-320 pdf Answer: A,D

Question No : 14
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D

Question No : 15
What is the correct state between two BGP peers that are neighbors?
A. active
B. operational
C. established
D. up
300-320 vce Answer: C

Question No : 16
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Answer: C

Question No : 17
Which option lists the EIGRP minimum timer settings for hello and dead timers in seconds?
A. 4 and 6
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 6
D. both 6
300-320 exam Answer: C

Question No : 18
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on
the right.
300-320 dumps
300-320 dumps Answer:

C:\Users\Kamran\Desktop\1.jpg occurs first – Failure detection time occurs second – Event propagation time occurs third –
SFP run time (small form-factor pluggable)occurs fourth – RIB FIB update time

Question No : 20
Which OSPF option can you configure to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone
through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
Answer: B

Question No : 21
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can
facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
300-320 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 22
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 23
Which three major points are important for network virtualization to separate logical networks on a shared physical
infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs
B. data plane
C. control plane
D. VPNs
E. VSANs
F. management plane
300-320 vce Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 24
Which feature set enables the full OSPF routing process when using a Cisco Catalyst 3750X Switch?
A. LAN base
B. IP base
C. IP services
D. enterprise access
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
If your enterprise is connected to 2 ISP, which method could you use to prevent being used as a transit network?
(Choose Two)
A. filter outbound
B. filter inbound
C. throw both ISP
D. choose only one ISP
E. Allow every routes inbound
300-320 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two options are VRF components. (Choose two.)
A. RIB
B. VSS
C. FIB
D. HSRP
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
It is a short-range wireless communication technology intended to replace the cables connecting portables of fixed deviceswhile maintaining high levels of security. It allows mobile phones, computers and other devices to connect and communicate using a short- range wireless connection. Which of the following terms best matches the definition?
A. Bluetooth
B. Radio-Frequency Identification
C. WLAN
D. InfraRed
312-50V9 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
> NMAP –sn 192.168.11.200-215
The NMAP command above performs which of the following?
A. A ping scan
B. A trace sweep
C. An operating system detect
D. A port scan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
The “Black box testing” methodology enforces which kind of restriction?
A. Only the external operation of a systemis accessible to the tester
B. The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C. Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
D. The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
312-50V9  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) isthe worldwide not-for-profit charitable organization focused on improving the security of software. What item is the primary concern on OWASP’s Top Ten Project most Critical Web application Security Rules?
A. Injection
B. Cross site Scripting
C. Cross site Request Forgery
D. Path Disclosure
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
A medium-sized healthcare IT business decides to implement a risk management strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?
A. Mitigate
B. Avoid
C. Accept
D. Delegate
312-50V9  pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) flaws in software applications?
A. Verity access right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls
B. Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings
C. Validate and escape all information sent over to a server
D. Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
You have successfully compromised a machine on the network and found a server that is alive on the same network. You tried to ping but you didn’t get any response back. What is happening?
A. TCP/IP doesn’t support ICMP.
B. ICMP could be disabled on the target server.
C. The ARP is disabled on the target server.
D. You need to run the ping command with root privileges.
312-50V9  vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
While using your bank’s online servicing you notice the following stringin the URL bar:
“http://www.MyPersonalBank/Account?
Id=368940911028389&Damount=10980&Camount=21”
You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflect the changes. What type of vulnerability is present on this site?
A. SQL injection
B. XSS Reflection
C. Web Parameter Tampering
D. Cookie Tampering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
The “Gray box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?
A. Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.
B. Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
C. The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
D. The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sniffers operation on Layer 3 of the OSI model
B. Sniffers operation on Layer 2 of the OSI model
C. Sniffers operation on the Layer 1 of the OSI model
D. Sniffers operation on both Layer 2 & Layer 3 of the OSImodel
312-50V9  exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You have successfully comprised a server having an IP address of 10.10.0.5. You would like to enumerate all machines in the same network quickly. What is the best nmap command you will use?
A. Nmap –T4 –F 10.10.0.0/24
B. Nmap –T4 –q 10.10.0.0/24
C. Nmap –T4 –O 10.10.0.0/24
D. Nmap –T4 –r 10.10.0.0/24
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening port on the targeted system. If a scanned port is open, what happens?
A. The port will ignore the packets.
B. The port will send an RST.
C. The port will send an ACK.
D. The port will send a SYN.
312-50V9  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
In Risk Management, how is the term “likelihood” related to the concept of “threat?”
A. Likelihood is the probability that a vulnerability is a threat-source.
B. Likelihood is a possible threat-source that may exploit a vulnerability.
C. Likelihood is the likely source of a threat that could exploit a vulnerability.
D. Likelihood is the probability that a threat-source will exploit a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is component of a risk assessment?
A. Logical interface
B. DMZ
C. Administrative safeguards
D. Physical security
312-50V9 Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A hacker has successfully infected an internet-facing server, which he will then use to send junk mail, take part incoordinated attacks, or host junk email content. Which sort of trojan infects this server?
A. Botnet Trojan
B. Banking Trojans
C. Ransomware Trojans
D. Turtle Trojans
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
This international organizationregulates billions of transactions daily and provides security guidelines to protect personally identifiable information (PII). These security controls provide a baseline and prevent low-level hackers sometimes known as script kiddies from causing a data breach. Which of the following organizations is being described?
A. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
B. International Security Industry Organization (ISIO)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Center for Disease Control (CDC)
312-50V9 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A common cryptographically tool is the use of XOR. XOR the following binary value:
10110001
00111010
A. 10001011
B. 10011101
C. 11011000
D. 10111100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is an extremelycommon IDS evasion technique in the web world?
A. post knocking
B. subnetting
C. unicode characters
D. spyware
312-50V9 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
As a Certified Ethical hacker, you were contracted by aprivate firm to conduct an external security assessment through penetration testing. What document describes the specified of the testing, the associated violations, and essentially protects both the organization’s interest and your li abilities as a tester?
A. Term of Engagement
B. Non-Disclosure Agreement
C. Project Scope
D. Service Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which of the followingtypes of firewalls ensures that the packets are part of the established session?
A. Switch-level firewall
B. Stateful inspection firewall
C. Application-level firewall
D. Circuit-level firewall
312-50V9  exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which tool allows analysis and pen testers to examine links between data using graphs and link analysis?
A. Metasploit
B. Maltego
C. Wireshark
D. Cain &Abel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A Regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server.
Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?
A. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
B. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
C. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority
D. Require all employees to change their passwords immediately
312-50V9  dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a protocol specifically designed for transporting event messages?
A. SMS
B. SNMP
C. SYSLOG
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 24
The configuration allows a wired or wireless network interface controller to pass all trafice it receives to thecentral processing unit (CPU), rather than passing only the frames that the controller is intended to receive. Which of the following is being described?
A. WEM
B. Multi-cast mode
C. Promiscuous mode
D. Port forwarding
312-50V9 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Nation-state threat actors often discover vulnerabilitiesand hold on to them until they want to launch a sophisticated attack. The Stuxnet attack was an unprecedented style of attack because it used four types of this vulnerability. What is this style of attack called?
A. zero-hour
B. no-day
C. zero-day
D. zero-sum
312-50V9  vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Route.com is a small IT corporation that is attempting to implement the network shown in the exhibit. Currently the implementation is partially completed. OSPF has been configured on routers Chicago and NewYork. The SO/O interface on Chicago and the SO/1 interface on NewYork are in Area 0. The loopbackO interface on NewYork is in Area
1. However, they cannot ping from the serial interface of the Seattle router to the loopback interface of the NewYork router. You have been asked to complete the implementation to allow this ping.
ROUTE.com\’s corporate implementation guidelines require:
•The OSPF process ID for all routers must be 10.
•The routing protocol for each interface must be enabled under the routing process.
•The routing protocol must be enabled for each interface using the most specific wildcard mask possible.
•The serial link between Seattle and Chicago must be in OSPF area 21.
•OSPF area 21 must not receive any inter-area or external routes. Network Information Seattle S0/0 192.168.16.5/30 –
Link between Seattle and Chicago Secret Password: cisco Chicago S0/0 192.168.54.9/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork S0/1 192.168.16.6/30 – Link between Seattle and Chicago Secre Password: cisco NewYork S0/1 192.168.54.10/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork Loopback0 172.16.189.189 Secret Password: cisco
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 25
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?
A. ip routing ipv6
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 routing
D. ip classless
E. ipv6 cef
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router,
accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny
ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255,
192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable
A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?

A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC?

A. redistribute ospf 1
B. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C. redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the
16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you
conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
What percent of R1\’s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A network administrator uses GRE over IPSec to connect two branches together via VPN tunnel. Which one of the
following is the reason for using GRE over IPSec?
A. GRE over IPSec provides better QoS mechanism and is faster than other WAN technologies.
B. GRE over IPSec decreases the overhead of the header.
C. GRE supports use of routing protocol, while IPSec supports encryption.
D. GRE supports encryption, while IPSec supports use of routing protocol.
300-101 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What is the benefit of deploying IPv6 in a campus network using dual stack mode?
A. Dual Stack Mode takes advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel within a network.
B. IPv4 and IPv6 run alongside one another and have no dependency on each other to function
C. IPv4 and IPv6 share network resources.
D. IPv6 can depend on existing IPv4 routing, QoS, security, and multicast policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
300-101 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 40
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit showing complete command output. What type of OSPF router is Router A?
300-101 dumps
A. internal router
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. edge router
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 644

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  • Duration: 90 minutes
  • Number of Questions: 63
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  • Format: Multiple Choice
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QUESTION 1
Examine the following PL/SQL code: Which statement is true about the execution of the code if the query in the PL/SQL block returns no rows?
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A. The program abruptly terminates and an exception is raised.
B. The program executes successfully and the output is No ROWS_FOUND.
C. The program executes successfully and the query fetches a null value in the V_LNAME variable.
D. Program executes successfully, fetches a NULL value in the V_LNAME variable and an exception is raised.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The STRING_TAB table has the following structure:
1z0-144 dumps
View the Exhibit and examine the code.
1z0-144 dumps
What is the outcome on execution?
A. It displays Output buffer not long enough. This is my test string.-.
B. It displays only Output buffer not long enough, and exits the anonymous block.
C. It displays only This is my test string. – Because EXCEPTION should have been defined in the anonymous block to get the error message.
D. It does not display any of the MEMS_PUTPUT messages and gives an error because a transaction control statement cannot be used in the exception section of a procedure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Examine the following PL/SQL code;
1z0-144 dumps
The execution of the code produces errors. Identify the error in the code.
A. The open cursor is missing
B. The fetch clause is missing
C. The exit when condition is missing
D. The EMP_NAME and EMP_JOB variables cannot be used in the for clause of the cursor FOR statement.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to create a trigger that fires whenever rows are deleted from the customer table and that displays the number of rows remaining in the table. Which two statements are correct about the trigger to be created for the above requirement? (Choose two.)
A. It should be an after trigger.
B. It should be a before trigger.
C. It should be a row-level trigger.
D. It should be a statement-level trigger.
E. It can be a before or an after trigger.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which tasks must be performed during the installation of the UTL_MAIL package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. setting the UTL_FILE_DIR initialization parameter
B. running the UTLMAIL.SQL and prvtmail.plb scripts
C. setting the SMTP_OUT_SERVER initialization parameter
D. using the CREATE DIRECTORY statement to associate an alias with an operating system directory
E. granting read and WRITE privileges to control the type of access to files in the operating system
1Z0-144 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which system events can be used to create triggers that fire both at database and schema levels? (Choose all that apply)
A. AFTER LOGON
B. AFTER STARTUP
C. BEFORE SHUTDOWN
D. AFTER SERVERERROR
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Examine the following code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which two statements are true about the above function? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used only in a parallelized query.
B. It can be used in both a parallelized query and a parallelized DML statement.
C. It can be used only in a parallelized data manipulation language (DML) statement.
D. It can have a separate copy run in each of the multiple processes when called from a SQL statement that is run in parallel.
E. It requires a PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES declaration with RNDS, WNDS, RNPS, and WNPS specified in order to use parallel optimization.
1Z0-144 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which statement is true about the fetch statements in the PL/SQL code?
A. Each fetch retrieves the first row and assigns values to the target variables.
B. Each fetch retrieves the next consecutive row and assigns values to the target variables.
C. They produce an error because you must close and reopen the cursor before each fetch -statement.
D. Only the first fetch retrieves the first row and assigns values to the target variables- the second produces an error.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
ORDER_TOTAL is a column in the orders table with the data type and size as number (8, 2) Examine the following code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which statement is correct about the above code?
A. It gives an error in line 3
B. It gives an error in line 4
C. It gives an error in line 6
D. It executes successfully and displays the output.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about wrapping? (Choose three.)
A. The PL/SQL wrapper detects and reports only syntax errors.
B. The PL/SQL wrapper detects and reports both syntax and semantic errors.
C. When wrapping a package or object type, both the body and specification should be wrapped.
D. When wrapping a package or object type, only the body should be wrapped, not the specification.
E. To change a wrapped object, the original source code needs to be modified and then wrapped again
F. To change a wrapped object, the wrapped code can be unwrapped, modified In a text file, and then wrapped again.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the code and its outcome on execution: What would be the effect on the two procedures if the value of debug is set to false? (Choose two.)
1z0-144 dumps
A. MY_PROC2 is not recompiled.
B. MY_PROC1 is recompiled but remains unchanged.
C. MY_PROC2 is recompiled but remains unchanged.
D. MY_PROC1 is recompiled without the debugging code.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)
A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.
B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.
C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.
D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the LOOP.
E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration of the loop
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALGRADE table.
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Examine the following code:
1z0-144 dumps
What is the outcome?
A. It is created successfully.
B. It gives an error because the return clause condition is invalid.
C. It gives an error because the usage of the host variables is invalid.
D. It gives an error because the data type of the return clause is invalid.
1Z0-144 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Identify two features of obfuscation. (Choose two.)
A. The Import and Export utilities accept wrapped files.
B. SQL\’ Plus cannot process the obfuscated source files.
C. Only the wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.
D. Both the DBMS_DDL package and the Wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.
E. The source code is visible only through the DBA_SOURCE view and not through the USER_SOURCE or
ALL_SOURCE View
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which statement is true about the execution of the PL/SQL code?
A. It executes successfully.
B. It generates a run-time exception.
C. It does not execute because of syntax error
D. It executes successfully and generates a warning.
1Z0-144 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.
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The record for the employee with employee__id 100 in the employees table is as follows;
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Identify the correct output for the code.
A. King 17-JUN-87 1500
B. King 17-JUN-87 24000
C. King current sysdate 1500
D. King current sysdate 24000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the customer table. You need to create a trigger to ensure that customers in category andquot;Aandquot; and andquot;Bandquot; have a credit limit of more than 8000. Examine the following trigger.
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Which statement is correct about the outcome of this trigger?
A. It compiles successfully and fires whenever the specified condition is met.
B. It compiles successfully but does not fire even when the condition is met
C. It gives an error on compilation because the new qualifier is prefixed with a colon.
D. It gives an error on compilation because the new qualifier can be used only in row-level triggers.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about PL/SQL exception propagation? (Choose two.)
A. The exception reproduces Itself In successive enclosing blocks until a handler is found.
B. Exception- can propagate across the remote subprograms that are called through database links.
C. If you declare a local exception in a subblock and a global exception in the outer block, the local declaration overrides the global exception.
D. If you declare a local exception in a subblock and a global exception in the outer block, the global declaration overrides the local exception.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true about anonymous blocks and named subprograms? (Choose two)
A. Subprograms are by default executed with definer\’s rights.
B. The declare section is optional for both anonymous blocks and subprograms.
C. Both anonymous blocks and subprograms execute by default with invoker\’s rights.
D. The declare section is mandatory for anonymous blocks and optional for subprograms.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: AB

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Exam Code: 1Z0-144
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
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ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
400-101 dumps
Answer:
400-101 dumps
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
400-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
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Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
400-101 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
400-101 dumps Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.
How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%- 25%-25%.
This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash
function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

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QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error: ERROR at line 1: ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
1Z0-060 exam Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
* If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 2
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
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Which two statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C (not D): CONS_VPD_AUTO
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note:
* CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the “options_flag” parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during refresh synchronization.
* START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
1Z0-060 dumps  Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is performed by the PMON process–an instance background process–of each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B: Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the listener.ora file.
Note:
* Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to the database server.
* A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server environments.

QUESTION 5
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure. In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
1Z0-060 pdf Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AC (not E):
md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the md_backup The command. md_restore can’t restore data, only metadata.

QUESTION 6
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database. You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted. What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 7
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
1Z0-060 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1. Mount the CDB.
2. Close all the PDBs.
3. Open the database.
4. Apply the archive redo logs.
5. Restore the data file.
6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing…
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
* Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a
database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since the backup are available.
* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

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