2018

Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 dumps pdf,300-209 Practice Test Questions

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Cabinetdetherapies collects 50 authentic Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Exam questions and Answers, and 300-209 pdf online sharing downloads, we help you improve your skills if you want to pass Cisco 300-209 Exams need to be noted: (Duration 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)),(available Languages English, Japanese), Exam Policies. It is recommended, but not required, that students have the following knowledge and skills:

Knowledge of Microsoft Windows® operating system
A CCNA Security certification

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Cabinetdetherapies recommends that you: https://www.geekcert.com/300-209.html (Q&As: 393 PDF + VCE) is frequently updated and reviewed to pass the exam quickly.

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[PDF]Free Full Cisco dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Qzc3W-UXHXeCJZQZIsYAVUuIacAB5JWN

300-209 SIMOS – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-simos.html

Free 50 Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Practice test questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which command will prevent a group policy from inheriting a filter ACL in a clientless SSL VPN?
A. vpn-filter none
B. no vpn-filter
C. filter value none
D. filter value ACLname
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa-command-reference/T- Z/cmdref4/v.html#pgfId-1842564

QUESTION 2
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A rogue static route is installed in the routing table of a Cisco FlexVPN and is causing traffic to be blackholed. Which command should be used to identify the peer from which that route originated?
A. show crypto ikev2 sa detail
B. show crypto route
C. show crypto ikev2 client flexvpn
D. show ip route eigrp
E. show crypto isakmp sa detail
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session. Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CISCO SSL VPN guide
The aaa authentication command is entered to specify an authentication list or server group under a SSL VPN context configuration. If this command is not configured and AAA is configured globally on the router, global authentication will be
applied to the context configuration.
The database that is configured for remote-user authentication on the SSL VPN gateway can be a local database, or the database can be accessed through any RADIUS or TACACS+ AAA server.
We recommend that you use a separate AAA server, such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS). A separate AAA server provides a more robust security solution. It allows you to configure unique passwords for each remote user and
accounting and logging for remote-user sessions.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. geekcert 300-209 exam question

A NOC engineer needs to tune some postlogin parameters on an SSL VPN tunnel.
From the information shown, where should the engineer navigate to, in order to find all the postlogin session parameters?
A. “engineering” Group Policy
B. “contractor” Connection Profile
C. DefaultWEBVPNGroup Group Policy
D. DefaultRAGroup Group Policy
E. “engineer1” AAA/Local Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/ htwebvpn.html#wp1054618
The policy group is a container that defines the presentation of the portal and the permissions for resources that are configured for a group of remote users. Entering the policy group command places the router in webvpn group policy
configuration mode. After it is configured, the group policy is attached to the SSL VPN context configuration by configuring the default-group-policy command.
The following tasks are accomplished in this configuration:
The presentation of the SSL VPN portal page is configured.
A NetBIOS server list is referenced.
A port-forwarding list is referenced.
The idle and session timers are configured.
A URL list is referenced.

QUESTION 6
Which equation describes an elliptic curve?
A. y3 = x3 + ax + b
B. x3 = y2 + ab + x
C. y4 = x2 + ax + b
D. y2 = x3 + ax + b
E. y2 = x2 + ax + b2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 7 geekcert 300-209 exam question When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Traffic initiated by the HQ ASA is assigned to the static outside crypto map, which shown below to use DH group 5 geekcert 300-209 exam question

QUESTION 8
Which three changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose three.)
A. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Enable EIGRP split-horizon on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP shortcuts on the spoke.
F. Add NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/web/learning/le21/le39/docs/tdw166_prezo.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?
A. Configuration > Device Management > Logging > E-Mail Setup
B. Configuration > Device Management > E-Mail Setup > Logging Enable
C. Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D. Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Your corporate finance department purchased a new non-web-based TCP application tool to run on one of its servers. Certain finance employees need remote access to the software during nonbusiness hours. These employees do not have
“admin” privileges to their PCs.
What is the correct way to configure the SSL VPN tunnel to allow this application to run?
A. Configure a smart tunnel for the application.
B. Configure a “finance tool” VNC bookmark on the employee clientless SSL VPN portal.
C. Configure the plug-in that best fits the application.
D. Configure the Cisco ASA appliance to download the Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN Client to the finance employee each time an SSL VPN tunnel is established.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa80/configuration/guide/webvpn.html
A smart tunnel is a connection between a TCP-based application and a private site, using a clientless (browser based) SSL VPN session with the security appliance as the pathway, and the security appliance as a proxy server. You can
identify applications to which you want to grant smart tunnel access, and specify the local path to each application. For applications running on Microsoft Windows, you can also require a match of the SHA-1 hash of the checksum as a
condition for granting smart tunnel access.
Lotus SameTime and Microsoft Outlook Express are examples of applications to which you might want to grant smart tunnel access.
Configuring smart tunnels requires one of the following procedures, depending on whether the application is a client or is a web-enabled application:
•Create one or more smart tunnel lists of the client applications, then assign the list to the group policies or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel access.
•Create one or more bookmark list entries that specify the URLs of the web-enabled applications eligible for smart tunnel access, then assign the list to the DAPs, group policies, or local user policies for whom you want to provide smart tunnel
access.
You can also list web-enabled applications for which to automate the submission of login credentials in smart tunnel connections over clientless SSL VPN sessions.
Why Smart Tunnels?
Smart tunnel access lets a client TCP-based application use a browser-based VPN connection to connect to a service. It offers the following advantages to users, compared to plug-ins and the legacy technology, port forwarding:
•Smart tunnel offers better performance than plug-ins.
•Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel simplifies the user experience by not requiring the user connection of the local application to the local port.
•Unlike port forwarding, smart tunnel does not require users to have administrator privileges.
The advantage of a plug-in is that it does not require the client application to be installed on the remote computer.
Smart Tunnel Requirements, Restrictions, and Limitations
The following sections categorize the smart tunnel requirements and limitations.
General Requirements and Limitations
Smart tunnel has the following general requirements and limitations:
•The remote host originating the smart tunnel must be running a 32-bit version of Microsoft Windows Vista, Windows XP, or Windows 2000; or Mac OS 10.4 or 10.5.
•Smart tunnel auto sign-on supports only Microsoft Internet Explorer on Windows.
•The browser must be enabled with Java, Microsoft ActiveX, or both.
•Smart tunnel supports only proxies placed between computers running Microsoft Windows and the security appliance. Smart tunnel uses the Internet Explorer configuration (that is, the one intended for system-wide use in Windows). If the
remote computer requires a proxy server to reach the security appliance, the URL of the terminating end of the connection must be in the list of URLs excluded from proxy services. If the proxy configuration specifies that traffic destined for the
ASA goes through a proxy, all smart tunnel traffic goes through the proxy.
In an HTTP-based remote access scenario, sometimes a subnet does not provide user access to the VPN gateway. In this case, a proxy placed in front of the ASA to route traffic between the web and the end user’s location provides web
access. However, only VPN users can configure proxies placed in front of the ASA.
When doing so, they must make sure these proxies support the CONNECT method. For proxies that require authentication, smart tunnel supports only the basic digest authentication type.
•When smart tunnel starts, the security appliance by default passes all browser traffic through the VPN session if the browser process is the same. The security appliance also does this if a tunnel-all policy applies. If the user starts another
instance of the browser process, it passes all traffic through the VPN session. If the browser process is the same and the security appliance does not provide access to a URL, the user cannot open it. As a workaround, assign a tunnel policy
that is not tunnel-all.
•A stateful failover does not retain smart tunnel connections. Users must reconnect following a failover.

QUESTION 12
Which two options are purposes of the key server in Cisco IOS GETVPN? (Choose two.)
A. to define group members.
B. to distribute static routing information.
C. to distribute dynamic routing information.
D. to encrypt transit traffic.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash?
A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A custom desktop application needs to access an internal server. An administrator is tasked with configuring the company’s SSL VPN gateway to allow remote users to work. Which two technologies would accommodate the company’s
requirement? (Choose two).
A. AnyConnect client
B. Smart Tunnels
C. Email Proxy
D. Content Rewriter
E. Portal Customizations
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. geekcert 300-209 exam question A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the
corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure
servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker.
What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The ACL was configured incorrectly.
B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied.
C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy.
D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. IKEv1
B. IKEv2
C. SSL client
D. SSL clientless
E. ESP
F. L2TP
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation

QUESTION 17
You have been using pre-shared keys for IKE authentication on your VPN. Your network has grown rapidly, and now you need to create VPNs with numerous IPsec peers. How can you enable scaling to numerous IPsec peers?
A. Migrate to external CA-based digital certificate authentication.
B. Migrate to a load-balancing server.
C. Migrate to a shared license server.
D. Migrate from IPsec to SSL VPN client extended authentication.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which option is a required element of Secure Device Provisioning communications?
A. the introducer
B. the certificate authority
C. the requestor
D. the registration authority
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When troubleshooting clientless SSL VPN connections, which option can be verified on the client PC?
A. address assignment
B. DHCP configuration
C. tunnel group attributes
D. host file misconfiguration
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which VPN feature allows remote access clients to print documents to local network printers?
A. Reverse Route Injection
B. split tunneling
C. loopback addressing
D. dynamic virtual tunnels
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An engineer has integrated a new DMVPN to link remote offices across the internet using Cisco IOS routers. When connecting to remote sites, pings and voice data appear to flow properly and all tunnel stats seem to show that are up.
However, when trying to connect to a remote server using RDP, the connection fails. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Change DMVPN timeout values.
B. Adjust the MTU size within the routers.
C. Replace certificate on the RDP server.
D. Add RDP port to the extended ACL.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 22
What command in cli you have to use to capture IKEv1 phase 1
A. capture match ip q port 500 eq port 500
B. capture match gre q port 500 eq port 500
C. apture match ah q port 500 eq port 500
D. capture match udp eq port 153 eq port 153
E. capture match udp eq port 500 eq port 500Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 23 geekcert 300-209 exam question Based on the provided ASDM configuration for the remote ASA, which one of the following is correct?
A. An access-list must be configured on the outside interface to permit inbound VPN traffic
B. A route to 192.168.22.0/24 will not be automatically installed in the routing table
C. The ASA will use a window of 128 packets (64×2) to perform the anti-replay check _
D. The tunnel can also be established on TCP port 10000
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco IP security (IPsec) authentication provides anti-replay protection against an attacker duplicating encrypted packets by assigning a unique sequence number to each encrypted packet. The decryptor keeps track of which packets it has
seen on the basis of these numbers. Currently, the default window size is 64 packets. Generally, this number (window size) is sufficient, but there are times when you may want to expand this window size. The IPsec Anti-Replay Window:
Expanding and Disabling feature allows you to expand the window size, allowing the decryptor to keep track of more than 64 packets.

QUESTION 24
Which adaptive security appliance command can be used to see a generic framework of the requirements for configuring a VPN tunnel between an adaptive security appliance and a Cisco IOS router at a remote office?
A. vpnsetup site-to-site steps
B. show running-config crypto
C. show vpn-sessiondb l2l
D. vpnsetup ssl-remote-access steps
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which three types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose three.)A. SAML
B. HTTP POST
C. HTTP Basic
D. NTLM
E. Kerberos
F. OAuth 2.0
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation

QUESTION 26
An engineer has configured Cisco AnyConnect VPN using IKEv2 on a Cisco ISO router. The user cannot connect in the Cisco AnyConnect client, but receives an alert message “Use a browser to gain access.” Which action does the engineer
take to eliminate this issue?
A. Reset user login credentials.
B. Disable the HTTP server.
C. Correct the URL address.
D. Connect using HTTPS.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which is used by GETVPN, FlexVPN and DMVPN?
A. NHRP
B. MPLS
C. GRE
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 28
The Cisco AnyConnect client fails to connect via IKEv2 but works with SSL. The following error message is displayed:
“Login Denied, unauthorized connection mechanism, contact your administrator”
What is the most possible cause of this problem?
A. DAP is terminating the connection because IKEv2 is the protocol that is being used.
B. The client endpoint does not have the correct user profile to initiate an IKEv2 connection.
C. The AAA server that is being used does not authorize IKEv2 as the connection mechanism.
D. The administrator is restricting access to this specific user.
E. The IKEv2 protocol is not enabled in the group policy of the VPN headend.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 29
What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.)
A. CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD
B. CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD
C. CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME
D. CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which command is used to determine how many GMs have registered in a GETVPN environment?
A. show crypto isakmp sa
B. show crypto gdoi ks members
C. show crypto gdoi gm
D. show crypto ipsec sa
E. show crypto isakmp sa count
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which three configuration parameters are mandatory for an IKEv2 profile? (Choose three.)
A. IKEv2 proposal
B. local authentication method
C. match identity or certificate
D. IKEv2 policy
E. PKI certificate authority
F. remote authentication method
G. IKEv2 profile description
H. virtual template
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

geekcert 300-209 exam question

A new NOC engineer is troubleshooting a VPN connection.
Which statement about the fields within the Cisco VPN Client Statistics screen is correct?A. The ISP-assigned IP address of 10.0.21.1 is assigned to the VPN adapter of the PC.
B. The IP address of the security appliance to which the Cisco VPN Client is connected is 192.168.1.2.
C. CorpNet is the name of the Cisco ASA group policy whose tunnel parameters the connection is using.
D. The ability of the client to send packets transparently and unencrypted through the tunnel for test purposes is turned off.
E. With split tunneling enabled, the Cisco VPN Client registers no decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which option describes the purpose of the shared argument in the DMVPN interface command tunnel protection IPsec profile ProfileName shared?
A. shares a single profile between multiple tunnel interfaces
B. allows multiple authentication types to be used on the tunnel interface
C. shares a single profile between a tunnel interface and a crypto map
D. shares a single profile between IKEv1 and IKEv2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

geekcert 300-209 exam question

The customer can establish an AnyConnect connection on the first attempt only. Subsequent attempts fail. What might be the issue?
A. IKEv2 is blocked over the path.
B. UserGroup must be different than the name of the connection profile.
C. The primary protocol should be SSL.
D. UserGroup must be the same as the name of the connection profile.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which command enables the router to form EIGRP neighbor adjacencies with peers using a different subnet than the ingress interface?
A. ip unnumbered interface
B. eigrp router-id
C. passive-interface interface name
D. ip split-horizon eigrp as number
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the count of all active VPN sessions?
A. show vpn-sessiondb summary
B. show crypto ikev1 sa
C. show vpn-sessiondb ratio encryption
D. show iskamp sa detail
E. show crypto protocol statistics all
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
Which NGE IKE Diffie-Hellman group identifier has the strongest cryptographic properties?
A. group 10
B. group 24
C. group 5
D. group 20
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 38
An engineer is configuring an IPsec VPN with IKEv2. Which three components are part of the IKEv2 proposal for this implementation? (Choos three.)
A. key ring
B. DH group
C. integrity
D. tunnel name
E. encryption
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Remote users want to access internal servers behind an ASA using Microsoft terminal services. Which option outlines the steps required to allow users access via the ASA clientless VPN portal?
A. 1. Configure a static pat rule for TCP port 3389
2. Configure an inbound access-list to allow traffic from remote users to the servers
3. Assign this access-list rule to the group policy
B. 1. Configure a bookmark of the type http:// server-IP :3389
2. Enable Smart tunnel on this bookmark
3. Assign the bookmark to the desired group policy
C. 1. Configure a Smart Tunnel application list
2. Add the rdp.exe process to this list
3. Assign the Smart Tunnel application list to the desired group policy
D. 1. Upload an RDP plugin to the ASA
2. Configure a bookmark of the type rdp:// server-IP
3. Assign the bookmark list to the desired group policy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which four activities does the Key Server perform in a GETVPN deployment? (Choose four.)
A. authenticates group members
B. manages security policy
C. creates group keys
D. distributes policy/keys
E. encrypts endpoint traffic
F. receives policy/keys
G. defines group members
Correct Answer: ABCD
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which algorithm provides both encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
A. SHA-96
B. SHA-384
C. 3DES
D. AES-256
E. AES-GCM
F. RC4
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 43

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer encounters a debug message. Which action can the engineer take to eliminate this error message?
A. Use stronger encryption suite.
B. Correct the VPN peer address.
C. Make adjustment to IPSec replay window.
D. Change the preshared key to match.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 44
Which command configures IKEv2 symmetric identity authentication?
A. match identity remote address 0.0.0.0
B. authentication local pre-share
C. authentication pre-share
D. authentication remote rsa-sig
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 45
Which configuration is used to build a tunnel between a Cisco ASA and ISR?
A. crypto map
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. GRE with IPsec
E. GRE without IPsec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.

geekcert 300-209 exam question

For the ABC Corporation, members of the NOC need the ability to select tunnel groups from a drop-down menu on the Cisco WebVPN login page.
As the Cisco ASA administrator, how would you accomplish this task?
A. Define a special identity certificate with multiple groups, which are defined in the certificate OU field, that will grant the certificate holder access to the named groups on the login page.
B. Under Group Policies, define a default group that encompasses the required individual groups that will appear on the login page.
C. Under Connection Profiles, define a NOC profile that encompasses the required individual profiles that will appear on the login page.
D. Under Connection Profiles, enable “Allow user to select connection profile.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco ASDM User Guide Version 6.1
Add or Edit SSL VPN Connections > Advanced > SSL VPN This dialog box lets you configure attributes that affect what the remote user sees upon login. Fields ?Login Page Customization–Configures the look and feel of the user login page
by specifying which preconfigured customization attributes to apply. The default is DfltCustomization. ?Manage–Opens the Configure GUI Customization Objects window. ?Connection Aliases–Lists in a table the existing connection aliases
and their status and lets you add or delete items in that table. A connection alias appears on the user login page if the connection is configured to allow users to select a particular connection (tunnel group) at login. ?Add–Opens the Add
Connection Alias window, on which you can add and enable a connection alias. ?Delete–Removes the selected row from the connection alias table. There is no confirmation or undo. ?Group URLs–Lists in a table the existing group URLs
and their status and lets you add or delete items in that table. A group URL appears on the user login page if the connection is configured to allow users to select a particular group at login. ?Add–Opens the Add Group URL window, on which
you can add and enable a group URL. ?Delete–Removes the selected row from the connection alias table. There is no confirmation or undo.

QUESTION 47
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPNB. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Scenario:
You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office.
You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly
configured between the two sites.
NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise.
Topology: geekcert 300-209 exam question

What is being used as the authentication method on the branch ISR?A. Certifcates
B. Pre-shared keys
C. RSA public keys
D. Diffie-Hellman Group 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The show crypto isakmp key command shows the preshared key of “cisco”. geekcert 300-209 exam question

QUESTION 49
Scenario:
You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office.
You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly
configured between the two sites.
NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise.
Topology: geekcert 300-209 exam question

In what state is the IKE security association in on the Cisco ASA?
A. There are no security associations in place
B. MM_ACTIVE
C. ACTIVE(ACTIVE)
D. QM_IDLE
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This can be seen from the “show crypto isa sa” command: geekcert 300-209 exam question

QUESTION 50
Scenario:
You are the senior network security administrator for your organization. Recently and junior engineer configured a site-to-site IPsec VPN connection between your headquarters Cisco ASA and a remote branch office.
You are now tasked with verifying the IKEvl IPsec installation to ensure it was properly configured according to designated parameters. Using the CLI on both the Cisco ASA and branch ISR, verify the IPsec configuration is properly
configured between the two sites.
NOTE: the show running-config command cannot be used for this exercise.
Topology: geekcert 300-209 exam question

Which crypto map tag is being used on the Cisco ASA?
A. outside_cryptomap
B. VPN-to-ASA
C. L2L_Tunnel
D. outside_map1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is seen from the “show crypto ipsec sa” command on the ASA. geekcert 300-209 exam question

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Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 dumps pdf,300-208 Practice Test Questions

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Cabinetdetherapies collects 49 authentic Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Exam questions and Answers, and 300-208 pdf online sharing downloads, we help you improve your skills if you want to pass Cisco 300-208 Exams need to be noted:
(Duration minutes (55-65 questions)), (available Languages English, Japanese), Exam Policies. It is recommended(but not required), that students have the following knowledge and skills before attending this course:

Knowledge of Microsoft Windows operating system
A CCNA Security certification

if you want to get “Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (Sisas) v1.0 “is the 300-208 exam dump, CISCO 300-208 exam certification.
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Free 49 Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Practice test questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown” for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as “compliant”. Which option is the reason for machine being
reported as “unknown”?
A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine.
B. Posture policy does not support the OS.
C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine.
D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security?
A. Access Point
B. Switch
C. Wireless LAN Controller
D. Authentication Server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which two switchport commands enable MAB and allow non-802.1X capable devices to immediately run through the MAB process? (Choose two.)
A. authentication order mab dot1x
B. authentication order dot1x mab
C. no authentication timer
D. dot1x timeout tx-period
E. authentication open
F. mab
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which three remediation actions are supported by the Web Agent for Windows? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic Remediation
B. Message text
C. URL Link
D. File Distribution
E. AV definition update
F. Launch Program
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation

QUESTION 5
When using CA for identity source, which method can be used to provide real-time certificate validation?
A. X.509
B. PKI
C. OCSP
D. CRL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which configuration must you perform on a switch to deploy Cisco ISE in low-impact mode?
A. Configure an ingress port ACL on the switchport.
B. Configure DHCP snooping globally.
C. Configure IP-device tracking.
D. Configure BPDU filtering.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which command configures console port authorization under line con 0?
A. authorization default|WORD
B. authorization exec line con 0|WORD
C. authorization line con 0|WORD
D. authorization exec default|WORD
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A security engineer has a new TrustSec project and must create a few static security group tag classifications as a proof of concept. Which two classifications can the tags be mapped to? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. user ID
C. interface
D. switch ID
E. MAC address
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In static classification the tag maps to some thing (an IP, subnet, VLAN, or interface) rather than relying on an authorization from the Cisco ISE.
This process of assigning the SGT is defined as “classification.” These classifications are thentransported deeper into the network for policy enforcement

QUESTION 9
Which description of the use of low-impact mode in a Cisco ISE deployment is correct?
A. It continues to use the authentication open capabilities of the switch port, which allows traffic to enter the switch before an authentication result.
B. Low-impact mode must be the final phase in deploying Cisco ISE into a network environment using the phased approach.
C. The port does not allow any traffic before the authentication (except for EAP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LLDP), and then the port is assigned to specific authorization results after the authentication.
D. It enables authentication (with authentication open), sees exactly which devices fail and which succeed, and corrects the failed authentications before they cause any problems.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLCC. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which definition of “posturing” as it relates to a general network infrastructure and access into the internal network is true?
A. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about internet activity being used by the endpoint.
B. The process by which an endpoint device can be monitored while connected to the network to determine if it could contain viruses or potential harmful programs running.
C. The process by which an operating system or application running on an endpoint provides critical information about the software that is actively running on the device.
D. The process when software is uploaded to an end device before it is allowed to gain access to a secure network.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which 2 options are functional components of the posture service?
A. Quarantined policy
B. Posture policy
C. Client provisioning
D. Network provisioning
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which components must be selected for a client provisioning policy to do a Posture check on the Cisco ISE?
A. Configuration Wizard, Wizard Profile
B. Remediation Actions, Posture Requirements
C. Operating System, Posture Requirements
D. Agent, Profile, Compliance Module
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which two options can a sponsor select to create bulk guest accounts from the sponsor portal? (Choose two.)
A. Known
B. Random
C. Monthly
D. Imported
E. Daily
F. Yearly
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which advanced authentication setting is needed to allow an unknown device to utilize Central WebAuth?
A. If Authentication failed > Continue
B. If Authentication failed > Drop
C. If user not found > Continue
D. If user not found > Reject
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which three network access devices allow for static security group tag assignment? (Choose three.)
A. intrusion prevention system
B. access layer switch
C. data center access switch
D. load balancer
E. VPN concentrator
F. wireless LAN controller
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which three statements describe differences between TACACS+ and RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS encrypts the entire packet, while TACACS+ encrypts only the password.
B. TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet, while RADIUS encrypts only the password.
C. RADIUS uses TCP, while TACACS+ uses UDP.
D. TACACS+ uses TCP, while RADIUS uses UDP.
E. RADIUS uses ports 1812 and 1813, while TACACS+ uses port 49.
F. TACACS+ uses ports 1812 and 1813, while RADIUS uses port 49
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which protocol is EAP encapsulated in for communications between the authenticator and the authentication server ?
A. EAP-MD5
B. IPSec
C. EAPOL
D. Radius
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 19 geekcert 300-208 exam question Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method is being used?
A. PEAP-MSCHAP
B. EAP-GTC
C. EAP-TLS
D. PEAP-TLSCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
These authentication methods are supported with LDAP:
Extensible Authentication Protocol
Generic Token Card (EAP-GTC) Extensible Authentication Protocol
Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS) Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol
Transport Layer Security (PEAP-)

QUESTION 20
When MAB is configured, how often are ports reauthenticated by default?
A. every 60 seconds
B. every 90 seconds
C. every 120 seconds
D. never
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 21
You discover that the Cisco ISE is failing to connect to the Active Directory server. Which option is a possible cause of the problem?
A. NTP server time synchronization is configured incorrectly.
B. There is a certificate mismatch between Cisco ISE and Active Directory.
C. NAT statements required for Active Directory are configured incorrectly.
D. The RADIUS authentication ports are being blocked by the firewall.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which debug command on a Cisco WLC shows the reason that a client session was terminated?
A. debug dot11 state enable
B. debug dot1x packet enable
C. debug client mac addr
D. debug dtls event enable
E. debug ap enable cisco ap
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which technology performs CoA support Posture Service?
A. External root CA
B. Cisco ACS
C. Cisco ISE
D. Internal root CA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which supplicants(s) and server(s) are capable of supporting EAP-CHAINING?
A. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Access Control Server
B. Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server
C. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Identity Service Engine
D. Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco Identity Service Engine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.)
A. DES for encryption
B. SHA-1 for hashing
C. 1024-bit RSA
D. AES GCM mode for encryption
E. HMAC-SHA-1
F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman
G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. geekcert 300-208 exam question If a user with privilege 15 is matching this command set on Cisco ISE 2.0, which three commands can the user execute? (Choose three.)
A. configure terminalB. show run
C. show clock
D. ping 10.10.100.1
E. exit
F. show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: ABF
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which RADIUS attribute is used primarily to differentiate an IEEE 802.1x request from a Cisco MAB request?
A. RADIUS Attribute (5) NAS-Port
B. RADIUS Attribute (6) Service-Type
C. RADIUS Attribute (7) Framed-Protocol
D. RADIUS Attribute (61) NAS-Port-Type
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 29
What is a requirement for posture administration services in Cisco ISE?
A. at least one Cisco router to store Cisco ISE profiling policies
B. Cisco NAC Agents that communicate with the Cisco ISE server
C. an ACL that points traffic to the Cisco ISE deployment
D. the advanced license package must be installed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
What attribute could be obtained from the SNMP query probe?
A. FQDN
B. CDP
C. DHCP class identifier
D. User agent
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
When using a DHCP probe in a Cisco ISE deployment, which type of request triggers an endpoint to be reprofiled?
A. DHCP Inform
B. REBINDING
C. RENEWING
D. INIT-REBOOT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which two attributes must match between two Cisco ASA devices to properly enable high availability? (Choose two.)
A. model, interface configuration, and RAM
B. major and minor software release
C. tcp dead-peer detection protocol
D. 802.1x authentication identity
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Refer to Following:
aaa new model
tacacs-server host 1.1.1.1 single connection
tacas-server key cisco123
Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?
A. Authentication request contains username, encrypted password, NAS IP address, and port.
B. Authentication and authorization requests are sent in a single open connection between the network device and the TACACS+ server
C. Authentication request contains username, password, NAS IP address and port.
D. Authentication and authorization request packets are grouped together in a single packet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Which three events immediately occur when a user clicks “Register” on their device in a single-SSID BYOD onboarding registration process (Choose three).
A. CA certificate is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
B. An endpoint is added to a RegistereDevices identity group
C. RADIUS access request is sent to Cisco ISE
D. The profile service is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
E. dACL is sent to the device from Cisco ISE
F. BYOD registration flag is set by Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: ABF
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which two options can be pushed from Cisco ISE server as part of successful 802.1x authentication?
A. Reauthentication timer
B. DACL
C. Vlan
D. Authentication order
E. Posture status
F. Authentication priority
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 36
A network administration wants to set up a posture condition on Cisco ISE to check for the file name Posture.txt in C:\ on a Windows machine. Which condition must the network administrator configuration?
A. Service condition
B. Registry condition
C. Application condition
D. File conditionCorrect Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 37
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)
A. the sensor, which contains one or more probes
B. the probe manager
C. a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
D. the trigger, which activates ACLs
E. an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints
F. a remitter tool, which fails over to redundant profilers
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which two Active Directory authentication methods are supported by Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. PEAP
C. PPTP
D. EAP-PEAP
E. PPP
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 40
What implementation must be added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints?
A. the ISE
B. an ACL
C. a router
D. a policy server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown
B. Compliant
C. FailOpen
D. FailClose
E. Noncompliant
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Your guest-access wireless network is experiencing degraded performance and excessive latency due to user saturation. Which type of rate limiting can you implement on your network to correct the problem?
A. per-device
B. per-policy
C. per-access point
D. per-controller
E. per-application
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 43
Which network access device feature can you configure to gather raw endpoint data?
A. Device Sensor
B. Device Classifier
C. Switched Port Analyzer
D. Trust Anchor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. geekcert 300-208 exam question If the given configuration is applied to the object-group vpnservers, during which time period are external users able to connect?
A. From Friday at 6:00 p.m. until Monday at 8:00 a.m.
B. From Monday at 8:00 a.m. until Friday at 6:00 p.m.
C. From Friday at 6:01 p.m. until Monday at 8:01 a.m.
D. From Monday at 8:01 a.m. until Friday at 5:59 p.m.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 45
What are the initial steps to configure an ACS as a TACACS server?
A. 1. Choose Network Devices and AAA Clients > Network Resources.
2. Click Create.
B. 1. Choose Network Resources > Network Devices and AAA Clients.
2. Click Create.
C. 1. Choose Network Resources > Network Devices and AAA Clients.
2. Click Manage.
D. 1. Choose Network Devices and AAA Clients > Network Resources.
2. Click Install.Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Which statement about Cisco Management Frame Protection is true?
A. It enables stations to remain in power-save mode, except at specified intervals to receive data from the access point.
B. It detects spoofed MAC addresses.
C. It identifies potential RF jamming attacks.
D. It protects against frame and device spoofing.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 47
CORRECT TEXT
The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the Cisco Catalyst switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to an 802.1X enabled switch
port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantto log in and connect to the network.
Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it connect to the network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is now configured to use 802.1X
authentication only.
To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the network printer to authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9.
Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all the requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE endpoint database and etc…
Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CLI
to:
Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC address and:
Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails
Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication if requested by a 802.1X supplicant
Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful
The switch enable password is Cisco
For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network printer will be unplugged then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required configurations on the Fa0/19 switch port.
Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE GUI To access the switch CLI, click the Switch icon in the topology diagram geekcert 300-208 exam question Correct Answer: Review the explanation for full configuration and solution.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Initial configuration for fa 0/19 that is already done:

AAA configuration has already been done for us. We need to configure mac address bypass on this port to achieve the goal stated in the question. To do this we simply need to add this command under the interface:
mab
Then do a shut/no shut on the interface.
Verification: geekcert 300-208 exam question

QUESTION 48
DRAG DROP
A security engineer is deploying Cisco ISE for a company’s guest user services. Drag and drop the Cisco ISE persona on the left onto its function on the right. geekcert 300-208 exam question Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
DRAG DROP geekcert 300-208 exam question Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Conclusion:
Congratulations on reading here! Passing the Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 exam is not an easy task, you first need to understand the
details of the exam, and then you have to choose a truly valid 300-208 test material(implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (Sisas) v1.0):https://www.geekcert.com/300-208.html (q&as:356 PDF + VCE),
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Free geekcert EMC E20-690 exam questions (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A customer has a Unified VNX field installed in their rack. All documentation materials included in the original shipment
are stored in the rack. Which item from the original package can be used to verify and label cabling prior to an FRU
replacement procedure?
A. The Installation Guide
B. The packing list
C. The Resource CD
D. The unpacking instructions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a MCx VNX for a new EMC customer, the system admin asks where the latest VNX documentation can
be found. What is the correct location?
A. support.emc.com
B. powerlink.emc.com
C. supportinfo.emc.com
D. elabadvisor.emc.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a VNX for File system, what is connected to the Control Station Eth1 port?
A. Secondary Control Station
B. Primary DM MGMT network
C. Secondary DM MGMT network
D. Customer Network for MGMT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Performing an FRU replacement on a Unified VNX requires managing the ConnectHome system. Which user can check
and change configuration settings for ConnectHome using the CLI on a Control Station?
A. root only
B. sysadmin
C. root or nasadmin D. nasadmin only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer\’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How would you connect to an SP in a degraded state to retrieve SPCollects?
A. RemotelyAnywhere
B. Unisphere
C. HyperTerminal or PuTTY
D. Unisphere Client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
From where can you download VNX software?
A. EMC Services Partner website
B. EMC FTP site
C. Engineering website
D. Procedure Generator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
geekcert exam question
What is the IP address of the indicated network?
A. 128.221.252.0
B. 128.222.1.0
C. 128.221.254.0
D. 127.0.0.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
While at a customer\’s site, you need access to a VNX Storage Processor on IP address 10.11.12.13. You want to use
RemotelyAnywhere but https://10.11.12.13 does not open the login screen.
Which port needs to be added to the URL?
A. 9519
B. 443
C. 80
D. 119
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which details can be determined when viewing a specific event within the andquot;current alertsandquot; page?
A. The storage system that generated the alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
B. The number of incidents for the type of alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
C. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The domain where the
storage system resides
D. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The severity type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
During a VNX gateway manual installation you are registering Data Mover initiators on the VNX Block back-end array.
Which 8-byte WWN is the initiator for Data Mover 2 HBA 0?
A. 5006016036A00190
B. 5006016136A00190
C. 5006016836A00190
D. 5006016936A00190
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which system check is performed during the installation of a VNX File Unified system?
A. Cable check
B. SMTP validation
C. Modem test
D. DNS resolution
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In addition to VNX Installation Assistant, what other tools and methods are available for VNX registration?
A. Unisphere, Standalone Registration Wizard
B. VNX Installation Toolkit, Standalone Registration Wizard
C. System Reports Wizard, VNX Installation Toolkit
D. Unisphere, System Reports Wizard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which software tool is used for initializing, registering, and basic configuration of new VNX for File/Unified platforms?
A. VNX Installation Assistant
B. Unisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Unisphere Service Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
geekcert exam question
From the highlighted information in the picture, which type of I/O module is represented?
A. 4 port 1G Base T iSCSI
B. 4 port 8G FC
C. 4 port 8Gb copper ethernet
D. 4 port FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your customer contacts you about an illuminated hardware \’fault\’ LED on a VNX LCC component. Using ESRS, you
access the system with Unisphere and determine that the faulted LCC component needs to be replaced.
How would you obtain the LCC part number for ordering a new replacement part?
A. Use the SolVe Desktop tool and view the specific VNX model parts guide.
B. Access the Alerts section in Unisphere and locate the specific alert for the faulted LCC.
C. Launch Unisphere Service Manager and perform a system verification operation.
D. Access the Hardware for File section of Unisphere and locate the faulted LCC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
You are onsite to replace a faulted Data Mover within a VNX8000 and note the following:
The storage administrators have received alerts that Server_6 has faulted but Server_6 now appears online.
Server_3 is configured as a standby for Server_2
Server_7 is configured as a standby for Server_6
Which slot in the diagram contains the active data mover Server_6?
A. Server_7
B. Server_6
C. Server_2
D. Server_3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have completed a VNX Unified installation and are now verifying the configuration. You notice that the
ConnectHome configuration is incorrect. You attempt to correct parameters using the CLI and are denied access. What
could be the problem?
A. Not logged in as the root user
B. Not logged in as the sysadmin
C. Not logged in as nasadmin
D. Not logged in as administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which operations can you perform with VNX Installation Assistant?
A. Create RAID groups, storage groups, and LUNs
B. Configure LUN masking for non-VNX host access
C. Configure SnapSure and replication
D. Configure MirrorView and SnapView
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using USM\’s Capture Diagnostic Data feature, where are the files automatically stored upon completion of this
task?
A. They are in the C:\EMC\repository folder located on the system running USM.
B. They are automatically uploaded to EMC support if the system is registered.
C. The user is prompted to either view them or upload them to EMC if ConnectHome is configured.
D. They are automatically stored in the repository located on the VNX vault drives.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
geekcert exam question
Which connection is indicated by the number 7 in this VNX SPE Management Module?
A. Serial Console B. Serial (unused)
C. Service port
D. Serial Management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which storage subsystems can be directly connected to a VNX gateway through Fibre Channel?
A. CLARiiON and Symmetrix only
B. CLARiiON and VNX only
C. Symmetrix, CLARiiON, and VNX
D. Symmetrix and VNX only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are an EMC service provider and want to install the ESRS IP client solution. The workstation on which you want to
install this software is on a network with a proxy server. What information must you provide in order to be able to install
the solution?
A. You must provide your proxy server IP address and the array IP address.
B. Service partners are not allowed to install the ESRS IP client at a customer site.
C. You must provide your Powerlink SecurID credentials and the proxy configuration.
D. You must provide the array serial number and the proxy configuration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
You are upgrading the VNX OE for File to a new version and choose to reboot the Data Movers during the upgrade.
How long will the users lose access to their files?
A. Access is lost for a time estimated by the USM tool.
B. Access is lost for two minutes.
C. Access to the files is never lost.
D. Access is lost for a time estimated by the HealthCheck tool.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
geekcert exam question
Which letter refers to the SPSs?
A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which condition must be met before starting the Unisphere Storage System Initialization Utility?
A. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the storage system
B. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the VNX internal network
C. Amber lights on the power supplies are blinking at 4 Hz
D. Blue lights on the Storage Processors are blinking at 1 Hz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
In which folder can the SPcollects be found when accessing a storage processor through Remotely Anywhere?
A. c:\dumps
B. c:\temp
C. c:\EMC
D. c:\NDU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You are sent to a secure customer site to install a VNX, where the use of cell phones and mobile hot spots is prohibited.
When you arrive you find that your VNX Installation procedure file is corrupted.
Using one of the customer\’s workstations where can a copy of the VNX installation procedure be found?
A. mydocs.emc.com/VNX
B. support.emc.com/VNX
C. emc.com/engineering/VNX
D. powerlink.emc.com/VNX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You have just replaced a defective component in a Data Mover. Which command can be run to verify the system returns
no errors?
A. # /nas/bin/nas_checkup
B. # /nas/bin/nas_server -info -all
C. # watch /nasmcd/getreason
D. # dmesg
Correct Answer: A

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free The Open Group OG0-091 exam questions (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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admin July 3, 2018 No Comments

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300-320 exam Cisco

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642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
642-873 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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642-873 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
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300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format
1.0 Advanced Addressing and Routing Solutions for Enterprise Networks 22%
2.0 Advanced Enterprise Campus Networks 20%
3.0 WANs for Enterprise Networks 17%
4.0 Enterprise Data Center Integration 17%
5.0 Security Services 13%
6.0 Network Services 11%

The 300-320 dumps (ROUTE) Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures exam is associated with the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching,CCDP certification and with the Cisco specialist. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including L2 and L3 infrastructures for the enterprise, WAN technologies, data center integration, network security and network services. geekcert users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better. Our geekcert new 300-320 dumps exam certification training materials are real with a reasonable price. After you choose our new 300-320 dumps, we will also provide one year free renewal service.

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Question No : 1
Which two features provide resiliency in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FabricPath
B. VTP
C. encryption
D. vPC
E. VRF
300-320 exam Answer: A,D

Question No : 2
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?
A. VSS is a requirement.
B. Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C. The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D. Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
What is the latest Cisco high-availability solution?
A. VRRP
B. HSRP
C. VSS
D. GLBP
300-320 dumps Answer: C

Question No : 4
A network engineer must provide 40mb connections from the data center to the corporate office and two remote offices. What WAN connectivity option will outsource the routing in cooperation with the service provider?
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Multipoint Service
C. MPLS VPN
D. VPLS
Answer: C

Question No : 5
Which three authentication services are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
E. local
F. SNMP
300-320 pdf Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. VLAN
D. vPC
Answer: D

Question No : 7
Which two technologies provide web and URL filtering and mitigate zero-day malware?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco CWS
B. Cisco WSA
C. Cisco GETVPN
D. Cisco ESA
E. NAT/PAT
300-320 vce Answer: A,B

Question No : 8
Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
300-320 exam Answer: D

Question No : 10
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

Question No : 11
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
300-320 dumps Answer: C

Question No : 12
Port security supports which type of port?
A. SPAN destination port
B. EtherChannel port-channel port
C. nonnegotiating trunk port
D. DTP-enabled trunk port
Answer: C

Question No : 13
What two sensor types exist in an IDS/IPS solution? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. anomaly based
C. policy based
D. network based
E. signature
300-320 pdf Answer: A,D

Question No : 14
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D

Question No : 15
What is the correct state between two BGP peers that are neighbors?
A. active
B. operational
C. established
D. up
300-320 vce Answer: C

Question No : 16
Which protocol should be configured if a network administrator wants to configure multiple physical gateways to participate simultaneously in packet forwarding?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. VTP
Answer: C

Question No : 17
Which option lists the EIGRP minimum timer settings for hello and dead timers in seconds?
A. 4 and 6
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 6
D. both 6
300-320 exam Answer: C

Question No : 18
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 19 DRAG DROP
Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on
the right.

300-320 dumps Answer:

C:\Users\Kamran\Desktop\1.jpg occurs first – Failure detection time occurs second – Event propagation time occurs third –
SFP run time (small form-factor pluggable)occurs fourth – RIB FIB update time

Question No : 20
Which OSPF option can you configure to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone
through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
Answer: B

Question No : 21
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can
facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
300-320 pdf Answer: B,C

QUESTION 22
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 23
Which three major points are important for network virtualization to separate logical networks on a shared physical
infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs
B. data plane
C. control plane
D. VPNs
E. VSANs
F. management plane
300-320 vce Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 24
Which feature set enables the full OSPF routing process when using a Cisco Catalyst 3750X Switch?
A. LAN base
B. IP base
C. IP services
D. enterprise access
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
If your enterprise is connected to 2 ISP, which method could you use to prevent being used as a transit network?
(Choose Two)
A. filter outbound
B. filter inbound
C. throw both ISP
D. choose only one ISP
E. Allow every routes inbound
300-320 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 50
D. 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two options are VRF components. (Choose two.)
A. RIB
B. VSS
C. FIB
D. HSRP
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
Which command can you enter to inject BGP routes into an IGP?
A. redistribute bgp
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute static subnet
D. default-information originate
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Q&As: 503

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The candidates for Eccouncil 312–50v9 dumps are require to be well-trained and technically expert because the Eccouncil EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker v9 has designed this exam in a technical manner. The 312-50V9 Certified Ethical Hacker Exam V9 exam is associated with the ECCouncil certification and with the ECCouncil specialist. Today, the Eccouncil industry is expanding with the introduction of new technologies and trends. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Certified Ethical Hacker Exam V9. In this scenario, the Eccouncil 312–50v9 dumps questions candidates must be prepared to cope with the complex areas of Eccouncil 312–50v9 braindumps topics and core areas. geekcert users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better. There are a number of the diverse range of Eccouncil topics and essential areas which must be 312–50v9 dumps prepared by the EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker v9 candidates in order to pass out this critical exam with due convenience.

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QUESTION 1
It is a short-range wireless communication technology intended to replace the cables connecting portables of fixed deviceswhile maintaining high levels of security. It allows mobile phones, computers and other devices to connect and communicate using a short- range wireless connection. Which of the following terms best matches the definition?
A. Bluetooth
B. Radio-Frequency Identification
C. WLAN
D. InfraRed
312-50V9 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
> NMAP –sn 192.168.11.200-215
The NMAP command above performs which of the following?
A. A ping scan
B. A trace sweep
C. An operating system detect
D. A port scan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
The “Black box testing” methodology enforces which kind of restriction?
A. Only the external operation of a systemis accessible to the tester
B. The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C. Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
D. The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
312-50V9 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) isthe worldwide not-for-profit charitable organization focused on improving the security of software. What item is the primary concern on OWASP’s Top Ten Project most Critical Web application Security Rules?
A. Injection
B. Cross site Scripting
C. Cross site Request Forgery
D. Path Disclosure
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
A medium-sized healthcare IT business decides to implement a risk management strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?
A. Mitigate
B. Avoid
C. Accept
D. Delegate
312-50V9 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) flaws in software applications?
A. Verity access right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls
B. Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings
C. Validate and escape all information sent over to a server
D. Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
You have successfully compromised a machine on the network and found a server that is alive on the same network. You tried to ping but you didn’t get any response back. What is happening?
A. TCP/IP doesn’t support ICMP.
B. ICMP could be disabled on the target server.
C. The ARP is disabled on the target server.
D. You need to run the ping command with root privileges.
312-50V9 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
While using your bank’s online servicing you notice the following stringin the URL bar:
“http://www.MyPersonalBank/Account?
Id=368940911028389&Damount=10980&Camount=21”
You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflect the changes. What type of vulnerability is present on this site?
A. SQL injection
B. XSS Reflection
C. Web Parameter Tampering
D. Cookie Tampering
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
The “Gray box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?
A. Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.
B. Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
C. The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
D. The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sniffers operation on Layer 3 of the OSI model
B. Sniffers operation on Layer 2 of the OSI model
C. Sniffers operation on the Layer 1 of the OSI model
D. Sniffers operation on both Layer 2 & Layer 3 of the OSImodel
312-50V9 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You have successfully comprised a server having an IP address of 10.10.0.5. You would like to enumerate all machines in the same network quickly. What is the best nmap command you will use?
A. Nmap –T4 –F 10.10.0.0/24
B. Nmap –T4 –q 10.10.0.0/24
C. Nmap –T4 –O 10.10.0.0/24
D. Nmap –T4 –r 10.10.0.0/24
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening port on the targeted system. If a scanned port is open, what happens?
A. The port will ignore the packets.
B. The port will send an RST.
C. The port will send an ACK.
D. The port will send a SYN.
312-50V9 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
In Risk Management, how is the term “likelihood” related to the concept of “threat?”
A. Likelihood is the probability that a vulnerability is a threat-source.
B. Likelihood is a possible threat-source that may exploit a vulnerability.
C. Likelihood is the likely source of a threat that could exploit a vulnerability.
D. Likelihood is the probability that a threat-source will exploit a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is component of a risk assessment?
A. Logical interface
B. DMZ
C. Administrative safeguards
D. Physical security
312-50V9 Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A hacker has successfully infected an internet-facing server, which he will then use to send junk mail, take part incoordinated attacks, or host junk email content. Which sort of trojan infects this server?
A. Botnet Trojan
B. Banking Trojans
C. Ransomware Trojans
D. Turtle Trojans
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
This international organizationregulates billions of transactions daily and provides security guidelines to protect personally identifiable information (PII). These security controls provide a baseline and prevent low-level hackers sometimes known as script kiddies from causing a data breach. Which of the following organizations is being described?
A. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
B. International Security Industry Organization (ISIO)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Center for Disease Control (CDC)
312-50V9 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A common cryptographically tool is the use of XOR. XOR the following binary value:
10110001
00111010
A. 10001011
B. 10011101
C. 11011000
D. 10111100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is an extremelycommon IDS evasion technique in the web world?
A. post knocking
B. subnetting
C. unicode characters
D. spyware
312-50V9 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
As a Certified Ethical hacker, you were contracted by aprivate firm to conduct an external security assessment through penetration testing. What document describes the specified of the testing, the associated violations, and essentially protects both the organization’s interest and your li abilities as a tester?
A. Term of Engagement
B. Non-Disclosure Agreement
C. Project Scope
D. Service Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which of the followingtypes of firewalls ensures that the packets are part of the established session?
A. Switch-level firewall
B. Stateful inspection firewall
C. Application-level firewall
D. Circuit-level firewall
312-50V9 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which tool allows analysis and pen testers to examine links between data using graphs and link analysis?
A. Metasploit
B. Maltego
C. Wireshark
D. Cain &Abel
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A Regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server.
Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?
A. Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
B. Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
C. Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority
D. Require all employees to change their passwords immediately
312-50V9 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a protocol specifically designed for transporting event messages?
A. SMS
B. SNMP
C. SYSLOG
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 24
The configuration allows a wired or wireless network interface controller to pass all trafice it receives to thecentral processing unit (CPU), rather than passing only the frames that the controller is intended to receive. Which of the following is being described?
A. WEM
B. Multi-cast mode
C. Promiscuous mode
D. Port forwarding
312-50V9 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Nation-state threat actors often discover vulnerabilitiesand hold on to them until they want to launch a sophisticated attack. The Stuxnet attack was an unprecedented style of attack because it used four types of this vulnerability. What is this style of attack called?
A. zero-hour
B. no-day
C. zero-day
D. zero-sum
312-50V9 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

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Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker Exam V9
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Download Complete List of Topics in PDF format

1.0 Network Principles 10%
2.0 Layer 2 Technologies 10%
3.0 Layer 3 Technologies 40%
4.0 VPN Technologies 10%
5.0 Infrastructure Security 10%
6.0 Infrastructure Services 20%

The 300-101 (ROUTE) Implementing Cisco IP Routing exam is associated with the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching,CCDP certification and with the Cisco specialist. Simulation of 300-101 dumps Implementing Cisco IP Routing real exam scenarios enables you for customizable learning and the self-assessment feature allows you to assess your preparation time to time in order to make it perfect. This exam certifies the routing knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6. PDF Q&A booklet provides the most updated questions very similar to the questions you are going to solve in the real 300-101 dumps exam. geekcert users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better. Once you have a clear idea of 300-101 exam pattern you find it easier to attempt the similar questions in the exam.

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QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit
300-101 dumps
Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Route.com is a small IT corporation that is attempting to implement the network shown in the exhibit. Currently the implementation is partially completed. OSPF has been configured on routers Chicago and NewYork. The SO/O interface on Chicago and the SO/1 interface on NewYork are in Area 0. The loopbackO interface on NewYork is in Area
1. However, they cannot ping from the serial interface of the Seattle router to the loopback interface of the NewYork router. You have been asked to complete the implementation to allow this ping.
ROUTE.com\’s corporate implementation guidelines require:
•The OSPF process ID for all routers must be 10.
•The routing protocol for each interface must be enabled under the routing process.
•The routing protocol must be enabled for each interface using the most specific wildcard mask possible.
•The serial link between Seattle and Chicago must be in OSPF area 21.
•OSPF area 21 must not receive any inter-area or external routes. Network Information Seattle S0/0 192.168.16.5/30 –
Link between Seattle and Chicago Secret Password: cisco Chicago S0/0 192.168.54.9/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork S0/1 192.168.16.6/30 – Link between Seattle and Chicago Secre Password: cisco NewYork S0/1 192.168.54.10/30 – Link between Chicago and NewYork Loopback0 172.16.189.189 Secret Password: cisco
300-101 dumps

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 25
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?
A. ip routing ipv6
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 routing
D. ip classless
E. ipv6 cef
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router,
accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny
ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255,
192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable
A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?

A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC?

A. redistribute ospf 1
B. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C. redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
300-101 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the
16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you
conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps

What percent of R1\’s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
300-101 dumps

Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?
A. CISCO
B. EIGRP
C. key
D. MD5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A network administrator uses GRE over IPSec to connect two branches together via VPN tunnel. Which one of the
following is the reason for using GRE over IPSec?
A. GRE over IPSec provides better QoS mechanism and is faster than other WAN technologies.
B. GRE over IPSec decreases the overhead of the header.
C. GRE supports use of routing protocol, while IPSec supports encryption.
D. GRE supports encryption, while IPSec supports use of routing protocol.
300-101 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What is the benefit of deploying IPv6 in a campus network using dual stack mode?
A. Dual Stack Mode takes advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel within a network.
B. IPv4 and IPv6 run alongside one another and have no dependency on each other to function
C. IPv4 and IPv6 share network resources.
D. IPv6 can depend on existing IPv4 routing, QoS, security, and multicast policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose Two)
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
300-101 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 40
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit showing complete command output. What type of OSPF router is Router A?
300-101 dumps
A. internal router
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. edge router
Correct Answer: C

geekcert 300-101 Exam Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 644

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1Z0-144 exam Oracle

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Review Exam Details

Duration: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 63
Passing Score: 65%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Oracle Database 10g, Oracle Database 11g, Oracle Database 11g Release 2, and Oracle Database 12c Release 1.
Format: Multiple Choice
Also available in Spanish – 1Z0-144-ESN.

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following PL/SQL code: Which statement is true about the execution of the code if the query in the PL/SQL block returns no rows?
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A. The program abruptly terminates and an exception is raised.
B. The program executes successfully and the output is No ROWS_FOUND.
C. The program executes successfully and the query fetches a null value in the V_LNAME variable.
D. Program executes successfully, fetches a NULL value in the V_LNAME variable and an exception is raised.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The STRING_TAB table has the following structure:
1z0-144 dumps
View the Exhibit and examine the code.

What is the outcome on execution?
A. It displays Output buffer not long enough. This is my test string.-.
B. It displays only Output buffer not long enough, and exits the anonymous block.
C. It displays only This is my test string. – Because EXCEPTION should have been defined in the anonymous block to get the error message.
D. It does not display any of the MEMS_PUTPUT messages and gives an error because a transaction control statement cannot be used in the exception section of a procedure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Examine the following PL/SQL code;
1z0-144 dumps
The execution of the code produces errors. Identify the error in the code.
A. The open cursor is missing
B. The fetch clause is missing
C. The exit when condition is missing
D. The EMP_NAME and EMP_JOB variables cannot be used in the for clause of the cursor FOR statement.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You want to create a trigger that fires whenever rows are deleted from the customer table and that displays the number of rows remaining in the table. Which two statements are correct about the trigger to be created for the above requirement? (Choose two.)
A. It should be an after trigger.
B. It should be a before trigger.
C. It should be a row-level trigger.
D. It should be a statement-level trigger.
E. It can be a before or an after trigger.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which tasks must be performed during the installation of the UTL_MAIL package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. setting the UTL_FILE_DIR initialization parameter
B. running the UTLMAIL.SQL and prvtmail.plb scripts
C. setting the SMTP_OUT_SERVER initialization parameter
D. using the CREATE DIRECTORY statement to associate an alias with an operating system directory
E. granting read and WRITE privileges to control the type of access to files in the operating system
1Z0-144 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which system events can be used to create triggers that fire both at database and schema levels? (Choose all that apply)
A. AFTER LOGON
B. AFTER STARTUP
C. BEFORE SHUTDOWN
D. AFTER SERVERERROR
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Examine the following code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which two statements are true about the above function? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used only in a parallelized query.
B. It can be used in both a parallelized query and a parallelized DML statement.
C. It can be used only in a parallelized data manipulation language (DML) statement.
D. It can have a separate copy run in each of the multiple processes when called from a SQL statement that is run in parallel.
E. It requires a PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES declaration with RNDS, WNDS, RNPS, and WNPS specified in order to use parallel optimization.
1Z0-144 vce Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which statement is true about the fetch statements in the PL/SQL code?
A. Each fetch retrieves the first row and assigns values to the target variables.
B. Each fetch retrieves the next consecutive row and assigns values to the target variables.
C. They produce an error because you must close and reopen the cursor before each fetch -statement.
D. Only the first fetch retrieves the first row and assigns values to the target variables- the second produces an error.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
ORDER_TOTAL is a column in the orders table with the data type and size as number (8, 2) Examine the following code:
1z0-144 dumps
Which statement is correct about the above code?
A. It gives an error in line 3
B. It gives an error in line 4
C. It gives an error in line 6
D. It executes successfully and displays the output.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about wrapping? (Choose three.)
A. The PL/SQL wrapper detects and reports only syntax errors.
B. The PL/SQL wrapper detects and reports both syntax and semantic errors.
C. When wrapping a package or object type, both the body and specification should be wrapped.
D. When wrapping a package or object type, only the body should be wrapped, not the specification.
E. To change a wrapped object, the original source code needs to be modified and then wrapped again
F. To change a wrapped object, the wrapped code can be unwrapped, modified In a text file, and then wrapped again.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the code and its outcome on execution: What would be the effect on the two procedures if the value of debug is set to false? (Choose two.)

A. MY_PROC2 is not recompiled.
B. MY_PROC1 is recompiled but remains unchanged.
C. MY_PROC2 is recompiled but remains unchanged.
D. MY_PROC1 is recompiled without the debugging code.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)
A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.
B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.
C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.
D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the LOOP.
E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration of the loop
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALGRADE table.
1z0-144 dumps
Examine the following code:

What is the outcome?
A. It is created successfully.
B. It gives an error because the return clause condition is invalid.
C. It gives an error because the usage of the host variables is invalid.
D. It gives an error because the data type of the return clause is invalid.
1Z0-144 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Identify two features of obfuscation. (Choose two.)
A. The Import and Export utilities accept wrapped files.
B. SQL\’ Plus cannot process the obfuscated source files.
C. Only the wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.
D. Both the DBMS_DDL package and the Wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.
E. The source code is visible only through the DBA_SOURCE view and not through the USER_SOURCE or
ALL_SOURCE View
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Examine the following PL/SQL code:
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Which statement is true about the execution of the PL/SQL code?
A. It executes successfully.
B. It generates a run-time exception.
C. It does not execute because of syntax error
D. It executes successfully and generates a warning.
1Z0-144 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.
1z0-144 dumps
The record for the employee with employee__id 100 in the employees table is as follows;

Identify the correct output for the code.
A. King 17-JUN-87 1500
B. King 17-JUN-87 24000
C. King current sysdate 1500
D. King current sysdate 24000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the customer table. You need to create a trigger to ensure that customers in category andquot;Aandquot; and andquot;Bandquot; have a credit limit of more than 8000. Examine the following trigger.
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Which statement is correct about the outcome of this trigger?
A. It compiles successfully and fires whenever the specified condition is met.
B. It compiles successfully but does not fire even when the condition is met
C. It gives an error on compilation because the new qualifier is prefixed with a colon.
D. It gives an error on compilation because the new qualifier can be used only in row-level triggers.
1Z0-144 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about PL/SQL exception propagation? (Choose two.)
A. The exception reproduces Itself In successive enclosing blocks until a handler is found.
B. Exception- can propagate across the remote subprograms that are called through database links.
C. If you declare a local exception in a subblock and a global exception in the outer block, the local declaration overrides the global exception.
D. If you declare a local exception in a subblock and a global exception in the outer block, the global declaration overrides the local exception.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true about anonymous blocks and named subprograms? (Choose two)
A. Subprograms are by default executed with definer\’s rights.
B. The declare section is optional for both anonymous blocks and subprograms.
C. Both anonymous blocks and subprograms execute by default with invoker\’s rights.
D. The declare section is mandatory for anonymous blocks and optional for subprograms.
1Z0-144 dumps Correct Answer: AB

geekcert 1Z0-144 Exam Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 1Z0-144
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 103

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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
400-101 dumps
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
400-101 dumps
Answer:

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
400-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
400-101 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
400-101 dumps Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.
How to Avoid CEF Polarization
Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%.
For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected).
For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%- 25%-25%.
This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash
function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.

geekcert 400-101 Exam Questions & Answers
Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 1379

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