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Question 1:

Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server was about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions.

Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson\’s machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?

A. Quid pro quo

B. Diversion theft

C. Elicitation

D. Phishing

Correct Answer: A

https://www.eccouncil.org/what-is-social-engineering/

This Social Engineering scam involves an exchange of information that can benefit both the victim and the trickster. Scammers would make the prey believe that a fair exchange will be present between both sides, but in reality, only the fraudster stands to benefit, leaving the victim hanging on to nothing. An example of a Quid Pro Quo is a scammer pretending to be an IT support technician.

The con artist asks for the login credentials of the company\’s computer saying that the company is going to receive technical support in return. Once the victim has provided the credentials, the scammer now has control over the company\’s computer and may load malware or steal personal information that can be a motive to commit identity theft.

“A quid pro quo attack (aka something for something” attack) is a variant of baiting. Instead of baiting a target with the promise of a good, a quid pro quo attack promises a service or a benefit based on the execution of a specific action.”

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/common-social-engineering- attacks/#:~:text=A%20quid%20pro%20quo%20attack,execution%20of%20a%20specific%2 0action.

Question 2:

After an audit, the auditors Inform you that there is a critical finding that you must tackle Immediately. You read the audit report, and the problem is the service running on port 369. Which service Is this and how can you tackle the problem?

A. The service is LDAP. and you must change it to 636. which is LDPAPS.

B. The service is NTP. and you have to change It from UDP to TCP to encrypt it

C. The findings do not require immediate action and are only suggestions.

D. The service is SMTP, and you must change it to SMIME. which is an encrypted way to send emails.

Correct Answer: A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lightweight_Directory_Access_Protocol LDAP, the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a mature, flexible, and well-supported standards-based mechanism for interacting with directory servers.

It \ is often used for authentication and storing information about users, groups, and applications, but an LDAP directory server is a fairly general-purpose data store and can be used in a wide variety of applications. The LDAP protocol can deal with quite a bit of sensitive data: Active Directory usernames, login attempts, failed login notifications, and more.

If attackers get ahold of that data in flight, they might be able to compromise data like legitimate AD credentials and use it to poke around your network in search of valuable assets. Encrypting LDAP traffic in flight across the network can help prevent credential theft and other malicious activity, but it\’s not a failsafe–and if traffic is encrypted, your team might miss the signs of an attempted attack in progress.

While LDAP encryption isn’t standard, there is a nonstandard version of LDAP called Secure LDAP, also known as “LDAPS” or “LDAP over SSL” (SSL, or Secure Socket Layer, being the now-deprecated ancestor of Transport Layer Security). LDAPS uses its distinct network port to connect clients and servers. The default port for LDAP is port 389, but LDAPS uses port 636 and establishes TLS/SSL upon connecting with a client.

Question 3:

An LDAP directory can be used to store information similar to a SQL database. LDAP uses a _____ database structure instead of SQL\’s _____ structure. Because of this, LDAP has difficulty representing many-to-one relationships.

A. Relational, Hierarchical

B. Strict, Abstract

C. Hierarchical, Relational

D. Simple, Complex

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Robin, an attacker, is attempting to bypass the firewalls of an organization through the DNS tunneling method to exfiltrate data. He is using the NSTX tool to bypass the firewalls. On which of the following ports should Robin run the NSTX tool?

A. Port 53

B. Port 23

C. Port 50

D. Port 80

Correct Answer: A

DNS uses Ports 53 which is almost always open on systems, firewalls, and clients to transmit DNS queries. instead of the more familiar Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) these queries use User Datagram Protocol (UDP) due to its low latency, bandwidth, and resource usage compared to TCP-equivalent queries.

UDP has no error or flow-control capabilities, nor does it have any integrity checking to make sure the info arrived intact. How is internet use (browsing, apps, chat, etc) so reliable then? If the UDP DNS query fails (it\’s a best-effort protocol after all) within the first instance, most systems will retry a variety of times and only after multiple failures, potentially switch to TCP before trying again;

TCP is additionally used if the DNS query exceeds the restrictions of the UDP datagram size. typically 512 bytes for DNS but can depend upon system settings. Figure 1 below illustrates the essential process of how DNS operates: the client sends a question string (for example, mail. google[.]com during this case) with a particular type. typically A for a number address.

I\’ve skipped the part whereby intermediate DNS systems may need to establish where `.com\’ exists, before checking out where `google[.]com\’ are often found, and so on.

New 312-50V12 dumps exam questions 4

Many worms and scanners are created to seek out and exploit systems running telnet. Given these facts, it\’s no surprise that telnet is usually seen on the highest Ten Target Ports list. Several of the vulnerabilities of telnet are fixed. They require only an upgrade to the foremost current version of the telnet Daemon or OS upgrade.

As is usually the case, this upgrade has not been performed on a variety of devices. this might flow from the very fact that a lot of systems administrators and users don’t fully understand the risks involved in using telnet. Unfortunately, the sole solution for a few telnet vulnerabilities is to completely discontinue its use. The well-liked method of mitigating all of the telnet vulnerabilities is replacing it with alternate protocols like SSH.

Ssh is capable of providing many of the equivalent functions as telnet and several other additional services typically handled by other protocols like FTP and Xwindows. Ssh does still have several drawbacks to beat before it can completely replace telnet. it\’s typically only supported on newer equipment. It requires processor and memory resources to perform the info encryption and decryption.

It also requires greater bandwidth than telnet thanks to the encryption of the info. This paper was written to assist in clarifying how dangerous the utilization of telnet is often and to supply solutions to alleviate the main known threats to enhance the general security of the web Once a reputation is resolved to an IP caching also helps: the resolved name-to-IP is usually cached on the local system (and possibly on intermediate DNS servers) for a period of your time.

Subsequent queries for an equivalent name from an equivalent client then don’t leave the local system until said cache expires. Of course, once the IP address of the remote service is understood, applications can use that information to enable other TCP-based protocols, like HTTP, to try to do their actual work, for instance, ensuring internet cat GIFs are often reliably shared with your colleagues.

So, beat all, a couple of dozen extra UDP DNS queries from an organization\’s network would be fairly inconspicuous and will leave a malicious payload to beacon bent an adversary; commands could even be received by the requesting application for processing with little difficulty.

Question 5:

Gavin owns a white-hat firm and is performing a website security audit for one of his clients. He begins by running a scan which looks for common misconfigurations and outdated software versions. Which of the following tools is he most likely using?

A. Nikto

B. Nmap

C. Metasploit

D. Armitage

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools.

What kind of hackers are we talking about?

A. Black-Hat Hackers A

B. Script Kiddies

C. White-Hat Hackers D. Gray-Hat Hacker

Correct Answer: B

Script Kiddies: These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools. Even then they may not understand any or all of what they are doing.

Question 7:

Samuel a security administrator, is assessing the configuration of a web server. He noticed that the server permits SSLv2 connections, and the same private key certificate is used on a different server that allows SSLv2 connections. This vulnerability makes the web server vulnerable to attacks as the SSLv2 server can leak key information.

Which of the following attacks can be performed by exploiting the above vulnerability?

A. DROWN attack

B. Padding oracle attack

C. Side-channel attack

D. DUHK attack

Correct Answer: A

DROWN is a serious vulnerability that affects HTTPS and other services that deem SSL and TLS, some of the essential cryptographic protocols for net security. These protocols allow everyone on the net to browse the net, use email, look online, and send instant messages while no third parties can browse the communication. DROWN allows attackers to break the encryption and read or steal sensitive communications, as well as passwords, credit card numbers, trade secrets, or financial data.

At the time of public disclosure in March 2016, our measurements indicated that two-thirds of all HTTPS servers were vulnerable to the attack. fortuitously, the vulnerability is much less prevalent currently. As of 2019, SSL Labs estimates that one.2% of HTTPS servers are vulnerable.

What will the attackers gain? Any communication between users and the server. This typically includes, however isn’t limited to, usernames and passwords, credit card numbers, emails, instant messages, and sensitive documents. under some common scenarios, an attacker can also impersonate a secure website and intercept or change the content the user sees.

Who is vulnerable? Websites, mail servers, and other TLS-dependent services are in danger from the DROWN attack. At the time of public disclosure, many popular sites were affected. we used Internet-wide scanning to determine how many sites are vulnerable:

New 312-50V12 dumps exam questions 7

SSLv2 Operators of vulnerable servers have to take action. there\’s nothing practical that browsers or end-users will do on their own to protect against this attack. Is my site vulnerable? Modern servers and shoppers use the TLS encryption protocol. However, because of misconfigurations, several servers also still support SSLv2, a 1990s-era precursor to TLS.

This support did not matter in practice, since no up-to-date clients use SSLv2. Therefore, even though SSLv2 is thought to be badly insecure, until now, simply supporting SSLv2 wasn’t thought of as a security problem, as clients never used it. DROWN shows that merely supporting SSLv2 may be a threat to fashionable servers and clients.

It modern associate degree attacker to modern fashionable TLS connections between up-to-date clients and servers by sending probes to a server that supports SSLv2 and uses the same private key.

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SSLv2

It allows SSLv2 connections. This is surprisingly common, due to misconfiguration and inappropriate default settings.

Its private key is used on any other server that allows SSLv2 connections, even for another protocol. Many companies reuse the same certificate and key on their web and email servers, for instance. In this case, if the email server supports SSLv2 and the web server do not, an attacker can take advantage of the email server to break TLS connections to the web server.

A server is vulnerable to DROWN if:

New 312-50V12 dumps exam questions 7-3

SSLv2 How do I protect my server? To protect against DROWN, server operators need to ensure that their private keys software is used anyplace with server computer code that enables SSLv2 connections. This includes net servers, SMTP servers, IMAP and POP servers, and the other software that supports SSL/TLS.

Disabling SSLv2 is difficult and depends on the particular server software. we offer instructions here for many common products: OpenSSL: OpenSSL may be a science library employed in several server merchandises. For users of OpenSSL, the simplest and recommended solution is to upgrade to a recent OpenSSL version. OpenSSL 1.0.2 users ought to upgrade to 1.0.2g.

OpenSSL 1.0.1 users ought to upgrade to one.0.1s. Users of older OpenSSL versions ought to upgrade to either one of these versions. (Updated March thirteenth, 16:00 UTC) Microsoft IIS (Windows Server): Support for SSLv2 on the server aspect is enabled by default only on the OS versions that correspond to IIS 7.0 and IIS seven.5, particularly Windows Scene, Windows Server 2008, Windows seven, and Windows Server 2008R2. This support is disabled within the appropriate SSLv2 subkey for `Server\’, as outlined in KB245030.

Although users haven’t taken the steps to disable SSLv2, the export-grade and 56-bit ciphers that build DROWN possible don’t seem to be supported by default. Network Security Services (NSS): NSS may be a common science library designed for several server merchandise.

NSS version three.13 (released back in 2012) and higher than ought to have SSLv2 disabled by default. (A small variety of users might have enabled SSLv2 manually and can take steps to disable it.) Users of older versions ought to upgrade to a more modern version. we tend to still advocate checking whether or not your non-public secret is exposed elsewhere Other affected software and in-operation systems: Instructions and data for Apache,

Postfix, Nginx, Debian, Red Hat Browsers, and other consumers: practically nothing practical that net browsers or different client computer code will do to stop DROWN. only server operators are ready to take action to guard against the attack.

Question 8:

In both pharming and phishing attacks, an attacker can create websites that look similar to legitimate sites with the intent of collecting personally identifiable information from its victims.

What is the difference between pharming and phishing attacks?

A. In a pharming attack, a victim is redirected to a fake website by modifying their host configuration file or by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS. In a phishing attack, an attacker provides the victim with a URL that is either misspelled or looks similar to the actual website domain name

B. In a phishing attack, a victim is redirected to a fake website by modifying their host configuration file or by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS. In a pharming attack, an attacker provides the victim with a URL that is either misspelled or looks very similar to the actual website domain name

C. Both pharming and phishing attacks are purely technical and are not considered forms of social engineering

D. Both pharming and phishing attacks are identical

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

in this form of encryption algorithm, every Individual block contains 64-bit data, and three keys are used, where each key consists of 56 bits. Which is this encryption algorithm?

A. IDEA

B. Triple Data Encryption Standard

C. MDS encryption algorithm

D. AES

Correct Answer: B

Triple DES is another mode of DES operation. It takes three 64-bit keys, for an overall key length of 192 bits. In Stealth, you merely type within the entire 192-bit (24-character) key instead of entering each of the three keys individually. The Triple-DES DLL then breaks the user-provided key into three subkeys, padding the keys if necessary so that they are each 64-bit long.

The procedure for encryption is strictly equivalent to regular DES, but it \ is repeated 3 times, hence the name Triple DES. The info is encrypted with the primary key, decrypted with the second key, and eventually encrypted again with the third key. Triple DES runs 3 times slower than DES but is far safer if used properly. The procedure for decrypting something is that the same as the procedure for encryption, except it\’s executed in reverse.

Like DES, data is encrypted and decrypted in 64-bit chunks. Although the input key for DES is 64 bits long, the particular key employed by DES is merely 56 bits long. The smallest amount of significant (right-most) bit in each byte may be parity and will be set so that there is always an odd number of 1s in every byte.

These parity bits are ignored, so only the seven most vital bits of every byte are used, leading to a key length of 56 bits. this suggests that the effective key strength for Triple DES is really 168 bits because each of the three keys contains 8 parity bits that aren’t used during the encryption process. Triple DES ModesTriple ECB (Electronic Code Book)?

This variant of Triple DES works precisely the same way because the ECB mode of DES? is often the foremost commonly used mode of operation. Triple CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)?This method is similar to the quality DES CBC mode.?like Triple ECB, the effective key length is 168 bits, and keys are utilized equivalently, as described above, but the chaining features of CBC mode also are employed.?the primary 64-bit key acts because the Initialization Vector to DES.?Triple ECB is then executed for one 64-bit block of plaintext.?

The resulting ciphertext is then XORed with subsequent plaintext block to be encrypted, and therefore the procedure is repeated.?This method adds a layer of security to Triple DES and is therefore safer than Triple ECB, although it \ is not used as widely as Triple ECB.

Question 10:

Which address translation scheme would allow a single public IP address to always correspond to a single machine on an internal network, allowing “server publishing”?

A. Overloading Port Address Translation

B. Dynamic Port Address Translation

C. Dynamic Network Address Translation

D. Static Network Address Translation

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Your organization has signed an agreement with a web hosting provider that requires you to take full responsibility for the maintenance of the cloud-based resources. Which of the following models covers this?

A. Platform as a service

B. Software as a service

C. Functions as a

D. service Infrastructure as a service

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Why is a penetration test considered to be more thorough than a vulnerability scan?

A. Vulnerability scans only do host discovery and port scanning by default.

B. A penetration test actively exploits vulnerabilities in the targeted infrastructure, while a vulnerability scan does not typically involve active exploitation.

C. It is not ? a penetration test is often performed by an automated tool, while a vulnerability scan requires active engagement.

D. The tools used by penetration testers tend to have much more comprehensive vulnerability databases.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attack process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected to the target network.

He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, and computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Whois records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D

https://www.darknet.org.uk/2017/07/bluto-dns-recon-zone-transfer-brute-forcer/ “Attackers also use DNS lookup tools such as DNSdumpster.com, Bluto, and Domain Dossier to retrieve DNS records for a specified domain or hostname. These tools retrieve information such as domains and IP addresses, domain Whois records, DNS records, and network Whois records.” CEH Module 02 Page 138

Question 14:

There are multiple cloud deployment options depending on how isolated a customer\’s resources are from those of other customers. Shared environments share the costs and allow each customer to enjoy lower operations expenses. One solution Is for a customer to Join a group of users or organizations to share a cloud environment. What is this cloud deployment option called?

A. Hybrid

B. Community

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: B

The purpose of this idea is to permit multiple customers to figure out joint projects and applications that belong to the community, where it\’s necessary to possess a centralized cloud infrastructure. In other words, a Community Cloud may be a distributed infrastructure that solves the precise problems with business sectors by integrating the services provided by differing types of cloud solutions.

The communities involved in these projects, like tenders, business organizations, and research companies, specialize in similar issues in their cloud interactions. Their shared interests may include concepts and policies associated with security and compliance considerations, and therefore the goals of the project also. Community Cloud computing facilitates its users to spot and analyze their business demands better. Community Clouds could also be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and may be either on-site or off-site.

Community Cloud Examples and Use CasesCloud providers have developed Community Cloud offerings, and a few organizations are already seeing the advantages. the subsequent list shows a number of the scenarios of the Community Cloud model that\’s beneficial to the participating organizations. Multiple governmental departments that perform transactions with each other can have their processing systems on shared infrastructure.

This setup makes it cost-effective to the tenants, and may also reduce their data traffic. Benefits of Community CloudsCommunity Cloud provides benefits to organizations within the community, individually also as collectively. Organizations don’t need to worry about the safety concerns linked with the Public Cloud due to the closed user group. This recent cloud computing model has great potential for businesses seeking cost-effective cloud services to collaborate on joint projects because it comes with multiple advantages.

Openness and ImpartialityCommunity Clouds are open systems, and they remove the dependency organizations wear cloud service providers. Organizations can achieve many benefits while avoiding the disadvantages of both public and personal clouds. Ensures compatibility among each of its users, allowing them to switch properties consistent with their individual use cases. They also enable companies to interact with their remote employees and support the utilization of various devices, be it a smartphone or a tablet.

This makes this sort of cloud solution more flexible to users\’ demands. Consists of a community of users and, as such, is scalable in several aspects like hardware resources, services, and manpower. It takes under consideration demand growth, and you simply need to increase the user base. Flexibility and ScalabilityHigh Availability and ReliabilityYour cloud service must be ready to ensure the availability of knowledge and applications in the least time.

Community Clouds secure your data in the same way as the other cloud services, by replicating data and applications in multiple secure locations to guard them from unforeseen circumstances. Cloud possesses redundant infrastructure to make sure data is out there whenever and wherever you would like it. High availability and reliability are critical concerns for any sort of cloud solution. Security and ComplianceTwo significant concerns are discussed when organizations believe cloud computing is data security and compliance with relevant regulatory authorities.

Compromising each other\’s data security isn’t profitable to anyone during a Community Cloud. the power to dam users from editing and downloading specific datasets. Making sensitive data subject to strict regulations on who has access to Sharing sensitive data unique to a specific organization would bring harm to all or any of the members involved. What devices can store sensitive data?

Users can configure various levels of security for his or her data. Common use cases: Convenience and ControlConflicts associated with convenience and control don\’t arise during a Community Cloud. Democracy may be a crucial factor the Community Cloud offers as all tenants share and own the infrastructure and make decisions collaboratively. This setup allows organizations to possess their data closer to them while avoiding the complexities of a personal Cloud.

Less Work for the IT DepartmentHaving data, applications, and systems within the cloud means you do not need to manage them entirely. This convenience eliminates the necessity for tenants to use extra human resources to manage the system. Even during a self-managed solution, the work is split among the participating organizations. Environment SustainabilityIn the Community Cloud, organizations use one platform for all their needs, which dissuades them from investing in separate cloud facilities.

This shift introduces a symbiotic relationship between broadening and shrinking the utilization of cloud among clients. With the reduction of organizations using different clouds, resources are used more efficiently, thus resulting in a smaller carbon footprint.

Question 15:

Which Nmap option would you use if you were not concerned about being detected and wanted to perform a very fast scan?

A. -T5

B. -O

C. -T0

D. -A

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

What would be the BEST action to take in a situation where collected evidence was left unattended overnight in an unlocked vehicle?

A. Report the matter to the local police authorities.

B. Move evidence to a climate-controlled environment.

C. Re-inventory the evidence and provide it to the evidence custodian.

D. Immediately report the matter to the case supervisor.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates

C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet

D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

Correct Answer: D

Here’s why the other options are not as suitable:

  • A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers: While this can reduce the risk of malware, it does not eliminate it. Even reputable retailers can inadvertently distribute software that contains malware.
  • B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates: While this is a good practice to ensure the integrity and authenticity of software updates, it does not guarantee that the software is free of malware.
  • C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet: This could potentially prevent some malware, but it also prevents important updates that could fix security vulnerabilities.

Therefore, option D is the most appropriate because it allows for thorough testing and verification of new software in a controlled environment, minimizing the risk of introducing malware into the production environment. This helps to maintain the integrity and security of the system.

Question 3:

A security architect is responsible for the protection of a new home banking system. Which of the following solutions can BEST improve the confidentiality and integrity of this external system?

A. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

B. Denial of Service (DoS) protection solution

C. One-time Password (OTP) token

D. Web Application Firewall (WAF)

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

After a thorough analysis, it was discovered that a perpetrator compromised a network by gaining access to the network through a Secure Socket Layer (SSL) Virtual Private Network (VPN) gateway. The perpetrator guessed a username and brute-forced the password to gain access.

Which of the following BEST mitigates this issue?

A. Implement strong password authentication for VPN

B. Integrate the VPN with centralized credential stores

C. Implement an Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) client

D. Use two-factor authentication mechanisms

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing carries the MOST operational risk?

A. Cutover

B. Walkthrough

C. Tabletop

D. Parallel

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

A scan report returned multiple vulnerabilities affecting several production servers that are mission-critical. Attempts to apply the patches in the development environment have caused the servers to crash. What is the BEST course of action?

A. Upgrade the software affected by the vulnerability.

B. Inform management of possible risks.

C. Mitigate the risks with compensating controls.

D. Remove the affected software from the servers.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.

Following best practice, where should the permitted access for each department and job classification combination be specified?

A. Security procedures

B. Security standards

C. Human resource policy

D. Human resource standards

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

During a penetration test, what are the three PRIMARY objectives of the planning phase?

A. Determine testing goals, identify rules of engagement, and conduct an initial discovery scan.

B. Finalize management approval, determine testing goals, and gather port and service information.

C. Identify rules of engagement, finalize management approval, and determine testing goals.

D. Identify rules of engagement, document management approval, and collect system and application information.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

An online retail company has formulated a record retention schedule for customer transactions. Which of the following is a valid reason a customer transaction is kept beyond the retention schedule?

A. Pending legal hold

B. Long-term data mining needs

C. Customer makes a request to retain

D. Useful for future business initiatives

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Although code using a specific program language may not be susceptible to a buffer overflow attack,

A. most calls to plug-in programs are susceptible.

B. most supporting application code is susceptible.

C. the graphical images used by the application could be susceptible.

D. the supporting virtual machine could be susceptible.

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between an on-premise environment and an external identity provider service?

A. Some users are not provisioned into the service.

B. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.

C. Single users cannot be revoked from the service.

D. SAML tokens contain user information.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A database server for a financial application is scheduled for production deployment. Which of the following controls will BEST prevent tampering?

A. Service accounts removal

B. Data validation

C. Logging and monitoring

D. Data sanitization

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

A. Change management processes

B. User administration procedures

C. Operating System (OS) baselines

D. System backup documentation

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

In which process MUST security be considered during the acquisition of new software?

A. Contract negotiation

B. Request for proposal (RFP)

C. Implementation

D. Vendor selection

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why the other options are not as suitable:

  • A. Contract negotiation: While security can be discussed during contract negotiation, it should be considered much earlier in the process. If you wait until contract negotiation to consider security, you may end up with a product that doesn’t meet your security needs.
  • C. Implementation: Security should be considered long before the implementation stage. If you only start thinking about security during implementation, it may be too late to make necessary changes.
  • D. Vendor selection: While the vendor’s ability to meet security requirements is an important factor in vendor selection, the specific security requirements should be defined earlier in the RFP.

Therefore, option B is the most appropriate because it ensures that security is considered early in the software acquisition process, allowing for a more secure and effective implementation. This helps to minimize the risk of security issues down the line.

Question 15:

What should happen when an emergency change to a system must be performed?

A. The change must be given priority at the next meeting of the change control board.

B. Testing and approvals must be performed quickly.

C. The change must be performed immediately and then submitted to the change board.

D. The change is performed and a notation is made in the system log.

Correct Answer: B

Here’s why the other options are not as suitable:

A. The change must be given priority at the next meeting of the change control board. This would delay the implementation of the change, which is not ideal in an emergency.
C. The change must be performed immediately and then submitted to the change board. This could lead to implementing untested changes, which might introduce new issues.
D. The change is performed and a notation is made in the system log. While it’s important to document changes, simply making a notation in the system log does not ensure that the change is sound or won’t introduce new problems.

Therefore, option B is the most appropriate because it balances the need for speed in an emergency with the need for due diligence in the form of testing and approvals. This helps to minimize the risk of new issues being introduced by the change.

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FromNumber of exam questionsTypeAssociated certification
geekcert15/1146FreeCompTIA Security+ 2023

Question 1:

A company recenty experienced an attack during which its main website was Girected to the attacker\’s web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials trom unsuspecting customers.

Which of the following should the company implement lo prevent this type of attack from occurring In the future?

A. IPSec

B. SSL/TLS

C. ONSSEC

D. SMIME

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

A company recently decided to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for tasks like checking email and messaging via mobile applications. The company would like to use MDM, but employees are concerned about the loss of personal data.

Which of the following should the IT department implement to BEST protect the company against company data loss while still addressing the employees\’ concerns?

A. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen.

B. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone.

C. Configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen.

D. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company\’s applications.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

After entering a username and password, an administrator must draw a gesture on a touch screen. Which of the following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?

A. Multifactor authentication

B. Something you can do

C. Biometric

D. Two-factor authentication

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

A user is trying to upload a tax document, which the corporate finance department requested, but a security program IS prohibiting the upload A security analyst determines the file contains Pll, Which of the following steps can the analyst take to correct this issue?

A. Create a URL filter with an exception for the destination website.

B. Add a firewall rule to the outbound proxy to allow file uploads

C. Issue a new device certificate to the user\’s workstation.

D. Modify the exception list on the DLP to allow the upload

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are used to identify and protect sensitive data, and often include a list of exceptions that allow certain types of data to be uploaded or shared.

By modifying the exception list on the DLP, the security analyst can allow the tax document to be uploaded without compromising the security of the system. (Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Textbook, page 479-480)

Question 5:

A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?

A. Verification

B. Validation

C. Normalization

D. Staging

Correct Answer: B

Per geeksforgeeks.org, Methods used in validation are Black Box Testing, White Box Testing, and non-functional testing.

Question 6:

A financial analyst has been accused of violating the company\’s AUP and there is forensic evidence to substantiate the allegation, Which of the following would dispute the analyst\’s claim of innocence?

A. Legal hold

B. Order of volatility

C. Non-repudiation

D. Chain of custody

Correct Answer: C

Chapter 30 Digital Forensics Nonrepudiation Nonrepudiation is a characteristic that refers to the inability to deny an action has taken place. This can be a very important issue in transactions via computers that involve money or things of value.


Question 7:

A company is upgrading its wireless infrastructure to WPA2-Enterprise using EAP-TLS. Which of the following must be part of the security architecture to achieve AAA? (Select TWO)

A. DNSSEC

B. Reverse proxy

C. VPN concentrator

D. PKI

E. Active Directory

F. RADIUS

Correct Answer: DF

Developing a robust WPA2-Enterprise network requires additional tasks, like setting up a PKI or CA (Certificate Authority), to seamlessly distribute certificates to users.

But contrary to what you might think, you can make any of these upgrades without buying new hardware or making changes to the infrastructure.

For example, rolling out guest access or changing the authentication method can be accomplished without additional infrastructure.

Recently, many institutions have been switching EAP methods from PEAP to EAP-TLS after seeing noticeable improvement in connection time and roaming ability or switching from a physical RADIUS server to a Cloud RADIUS solution.

Improving the functionality of wireless networks can be gained without changing a single piece of hardware.

Question 8:

Which of the following control sets should a well-written BCP include? (Select THREE)

A. Preventive

B. Detective

C. Deterrent

D. Corrective

E. Compensating

F. Physical

G. Recovery

Correct Answer: ADG

Question 9:

The manager who is responsible for a data set has asked a security engineer to apply encryption to the data on a hard disk. The security engineer is an example of a:

A. data controller.

B. data owner

C. data custodian.

D. data processor

Correct Answer: C

From the official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide glossary:

data custodian – An individual who is responsible for managing the system on which data assets are stored, including being responsible for enforcing access control, encryption, and backup/recovery measures.

Question 10:

Aconbgany uses a drone for precise perimeter and boundary monitoring. Which of the following should be MOST concerning to the company?

A. Privacy

B. Cloud storage of telemetry data

C. GPS spoofing

D. Weather events

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

An organization recently released a software assurance policy that requires developers to run code scans each night on the repository.

After the first night, the security team alerted the developers that more than 2,000 findings were reported and needed to be addressed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the high number of findings?

A. The vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives

B. Third-party libraries have been loaded into the repository and should be removed from the codebase.

C. The vulnerability scanner found several memory leaks during runtime, causing duplicate reports for the same issue.

D. The vulnerability scanner was not loaded with the correct benchmarks and needs to be updated.

Correct Answer: A

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives.

False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable.

This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia- security-plus- course/

Question 12:

Which of the following must be in place before implementing a BCP?

A. SLA

B. AUP

C. NDA

D. BIA

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

An organization suffered numerous multiday power outages at its current location. The Chief Executive Officer wants to create a disaster recovery strategy to resolve this issue.

Which of the following options offers low-cost solutions? (Choose two.)

A. Warm site

B. Generator

C. Hot site

D. Cold site

E. Cloud backups

F. UPS

Correct Answer: BF

Question 14:

A user attempts to load a web-based application, but the expected login screen does not appear A help desk analyst troubleshoots the issue by running the following command and reviewing the output on the user\’s PC

CompTIA sy0-601 dumps practice material q14

The help desk analyst then runs the same command on the local PC

comptia sy0-601 dumps practice material q14-1

Which of the following BEST describes the attack that is being detected?

A. Domain hijacking

B. DNS poisoning

C. MAC flooding

D. Evil twin

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

A major clothing company recently lost a large amount of proprietary information.

The security officer must find a solution to ensure this never happens again.

Which of the following is the BEST technical implementation to prevent this from happening again?

A. Configure DLP solutions

B. Disable peer-to-peer sharing

C. Enable role-based access controls.

D. Mandate job rotation.

E. Implement content filters

Correct Answer: A


Latest CompTIA SY0-601 exam details

Exam NameCompTIA Security+ 2023
Exam CodeSY0-601
Number of QuestionsMaximum of 90 questions
Type of QuestionsMultiple-choice and performance-based
Length of Test90 minutes
Passing Score750 (on a scale of 100-900)
LanguagesEnglish, Japanese, Vietnamese, Thai, Portuguese
Testing Provider Pearson VUE, Testing Centers, Online Testing
Price$392 USD
Retirement July 2024
ReplaceSY0-701 (Launch Date: November 7, 2023 )

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200-301 Dumps Updates And Some Guidelines That Should Be Noted

If you’re looking for a breakthrough point, you want to pass the Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam. My advice to you is:
Get the latest 200-301 dumps and some guidelines to remember.

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About the exam 200-301 guidelines, below I will share them one by one, not only that but I also bring you the latest exam questions of geekcert 200-301 dumps online reading.

First of all, share the free 200-301 exam (1-15) that you are most interested in, and come and take the practice test to improve your CCNA 200-301 exam ability.

Take practice with free 200-301 exam questions online in 2023

Question 1:

What are two benefits of using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A. They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

B. They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

C. They provide a layer of security from internet threats.

D. They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

E. They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice-level message to a Syslog server?

A. An interface line has changed status.

B. An ICMP connection has been built.

C. A TCP connection has been torn down.

D. A certificate has expired.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A. 0000.5E00.010a

B. 0005.3709.8968

C. 0000.0C07.AC99

D. 0007.C070.AB01

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

A. CCMP128

B. GCMP256

C. CCMP256

D. GCMP128

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity\’? (Choose two.)

A. WPA2

B. WPA3

C. Wi-Fi 6

D. WEP

E. WPA

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

A. mismatched autonomous system numbers

B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10

C. mismatched process IDs

D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers

E. use of the same router ID on both devices

Correct Answer: DE


Question 7:

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A. disk

B. applications

C. VM configuration file

D. operating system

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment. Which command must be used to configure the route?

200-301 exam questions 8 online

A. route add 10.0.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

B. route add 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2

C. ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

D. ip route 10.0.3.0 0.255.255.255 10.0.4.2

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which interface enables the communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

A. northbound interface

B. software virtual interface

C. southbound interface

D. tunnel Interface

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

A. VTP

B. DTP

C. egress traffic

D. ingress traffic

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

200-301 exam questions 11 online

A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E. ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Correct Answer: DE


Question 12:

What criteria are used first during the root port selection process?

A. local port ID

B. lowest path cost to the root bridge

C. lowest neighbor\’s bridge ID

D. lowest neighbor\’s port ID

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 exam questions 13 online

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A. 10.10.10.1

B. 10.10.10.11

C. 10.10.10.12

D. 10.10.10.14

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which step immediately follows receipt of the EAP success message when session resumption is disabled for an EAP-TLS connection?

A. PMKID caching

B. four-way handshake

C. 802.1X authentication

D. EAPOL-keyframe

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?

A. NAT

B. 6 to 4 tunneling

C. L2TPv3

D. dual-stack

Correct Answer: B


Download the latest 200-301 exam questions in PDF format here: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_cRoAyec2CHnwI5mExIJHV6REAbNOEyR/view?usp=share_link

Now that you’ve shared your free exam resources, it’s time to talk about some guidelines that are all designed to help you pass the Cisco exam 200-301.

Some guidelines should be noted: CCNA 200-301 exam

Familiarity with the syllabus and reading of official textbooks is a must:

The exam syllabus, the official Cisco textbook is an essential resource for exam preparation and can help candidates gain a deep understanding of concepts and techniques.

Establish a good study plan:

Develop a detailed study plan based on the exam syllabus and personal time and abilities, including daily, weekly, and monthly goals.

Participate in practice tests to improve the practical experience:

deepen the understanding and application of knowledge through practice, such as building a network experimental environment, simulating real network scenarios, etc.

For example, practice sample questions:

By practicing sample questions, candidates can understand the difficulty and type of the test and improve the speed and accuracy of answering questions.

There are two other small points that also require special attention

  1. Pay attention to the exam time: the exam time is limited, and candidates need to master time management skills, allocate time reasonably, and grasp the rhythm of answering questions.
  2. Stay healthy during test preparation: maintain physical health and mental health, arrange your work and rest time reasonably, and ensure adequate sleep and rest.

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PL-300 Dumps 2023 | Effective Tools To Pass The Exam Successfully

PL-300 Dumps 2023 Effective Tools

In the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam, are the PL-300 dumps important? Did you encounter the following doubts, and the top three based on voting are as follows:

  1. Why did the PL-300 knowledge that I saw turn around and forget?
  2. Are the PL-300 dumps 2023 valid?
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These questions will answer in the Freecertexam blog. But now I want to share practical tools for passing the PL-300 exam. This is important for exams. Our updated PL-300 dumps 2023 https://www.geekcert.com/pl-300.html is an effective tool to help you pass the exam.

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Who is in charge of your memory?

“Why did the PL-300 knowledge that I saw turn around and forget?”

As the saying goes: to learn is to practice repeatedly. From a brain science point of view, this is indeed the case. Just re-memorize it.

Reading this, you may think: what if you can’t remember the content of the exam?

Flexible use, PL-300 dumps learning method is more efficient.

It’s important to practice repeatedly.

“Is it true that practicing the PL-300 exam questions over and over again is valid?”

Only through repeated memorization can that knowledge be retained in the brain. The same goes for the PL-300 exam, so it’s important to practice the PL-300 exam questions!

It is possible to use geekcert PL-300 dumps 2023, which has a lot of real questions for the exam.

The above is the answer to the first three questions.

Do practice questions, which not only promote knowledge but are also part of the exam.

Share some of the free Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam questions below:

Question 1:

You are creating a Power BI model that contains a table named Store. The store contains the following fields.

You plan to create a map visual that will show store locations and provide the ability to drill down from Country to State/Province to City. What should you do to ensure that the locations are mapped property?

A. Set the data category of the City. State/Province, and Country.

B. Set Summarization for City. State/Province, and Country to Don\’t summarize

C. Change the data type of the City. State/Province, and Country.

D. Create a calculated column that concatenates the values it City, State/Province and Country.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You plan to create a report that will display sales data from the last year for multiple regions

You need to restrict access to individual rows of the data on a per-region basis by using roles.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 2-2

Question 3:

You have the Power Bl model shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 free exam sample questions 3

There are four departments in the Departments table.

You need to ensure that users can see the data of their respective departments only.

What should you do?

A. Create a row-level security (RLS) role for each department, and then define the membership of the role.

B. Create a DepartmentID parameter to filter the Departments table.

C. To the ConfidentialData table, add a calculated measure that uses the currentgroup DAX function.

D. Create a slicer that filters Departments based on DepartmentID.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You have sales data in a star schema that contains four tables named Sales, Customer, Date, and Product. The Sales table contains purchase and ship dates.

Most often, you will use the purchase date to analyze the data, but you will analyze the data by both dates independently and together.

You need to design an imported dataset to support the analysis. The solution must minimize the model size and the number of queries against the data source. Which data modeling design should you use?

A. Use the Auto Date/Time functionality in Microsoft Power BI and do NOT import the Date table.

B. Duplicate the Date query in Power Query and use active relationships between both Date tables.

C. On the Date table, use a reference query in Power Query and create active relationships between Sales and both Date tables in the modeling view.

D. Create an active relationship between Sales and Date for the purchase date and an inactive relationship for the ship date.

Correct Answer: D

Only one relationship can be active.

Note: If you query two or more tables at the same time when the data is loaded, Power BI Desktop attempts to find and create relationships for you. The relationship options Cardinality, Cross filter direction, and Make this relationship active are automatically set.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-create-and-manage-relationships


Question 5:

You have four sales regions. Each region has multiple sales managers.

You implement row-level security (RLS) in a data model. You assign the relevant distribution lists to each role.

You have sales reports that enable analysis by region. The sales managers can view the sales records of their region. The sales managers are prevented from viewing records from other regions.

A sales manager changes to a different region.

You need to ensure that the sales manager can see the correct sales data.

What should you do?

A. From Microsoft Power Bl Desktop, edit the Row-Level Security setting for the reports.

B. Change the Microsoft Power Bl license type of the sales manager.

C. Manage the permissions of the underlying dataset

D. Request that the sales manager be added to the correct Azure Active Directory group.

Correct Answer: D

Using AD Security Groups, you no longer need to maintain a long list of users.

All that you will need to do is to put in the AD Security group with the required permissions and Power BI will do the REST! This means a small and simple security file with the permissions and AD Security group.

Note: Configure role mappings Once published to Power BI, you must map members to dataset roles. Members can be user accounts or security groups.

Whenever possible, we recommend you map security groups to dataset roles. It involves managing security group memberships in Azure Active Directory. Possibly, it delegates the task to your network administrators.

Reference: https://www.fourmoo.com/2018/02/20/dynamic-row-level-security-is-easy-with-active-directory-security-groups/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/guidance/rls-guidance


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You are building a dataset from a JSON file that contains an array of documents.

You need to import attributes as columns from all the documents in the JSON file. The solution must ensure that data attributes can be used as date hierarchies in Microsoft Power BI reports.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 6

Correct Answer:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 6-2

1- Convert list to table 2- Expand Column 3- Set Date type

Here is an example: https://youtu.be/B4kzyxnhQfI

The definition of the function which expands columns: https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/powerquery-m/table-expand record column


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

pl-300 free exam sample questions 7

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 7-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 7-3

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures


Question 8:

You have a CSV file that contains user complaints. The file contains a column named Logged. Logged contains the date and time each complaint occurred. The data in Logged is in the following format: 2018-12-31 at 08:59.

You need to be able to analyze the complaints by the logged date and use a built-in date hierarchy.

What should you do?

A. Apply a transformation to extract the last 11 characters of the Logged column and set the data type of the new column to Date.

B. Change the data type of the Logged column to Date.

C. Split the Logged column by using it as the delimiter.

D. Apply a transformation to extract the first 11 characters of the Logged column.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario. You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the Exhibit.)

pl-300 free exam sample questions 9

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit).

pl-300 free exam sample questions 9-2

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.

Product Subcategory [Subcategory] contains NULL values.

End of repeated scenario.

You implement the Power BI model.

You need to edit the Product Category table query to match the desired Power BI model.

How should you complete the advanced query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

You may need to frag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 9-3

Correct Answer:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 9-4

Question 10:

You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company.

You need to create a visualization for the HR department that shows historic employee counts and predicts trends during the next six months.

Which type of visualization should you use?

A. scatter chart

B. ribbon chart

C. line chart

D. key influences

Correct Answer: C

The best data for forecasting is time series data or uniformly increasing whole numbers. The line chart has to have only one line.

Try forecasting: Try the new forecasting capabilities of Power View today on your own data or with the sample report available as part of the Power BI report samples. To view your own data, upload a workbook with a Power View time series line chart to Power BI for Office 365.

Reference: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/introducing-new-forecasting-capabilities-in-power-view-for-office-365


Question 11:

HOTSPOT You have a column named UnitslnStock as shown in the following exhibit

pl-300 free exam sample questions 11

Hot Area:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 11-2

Correct Answer:

pl-300 free exam sample questions 11-3

Question 12:

You are creating a visual to show the ranking of product categories by sales revenue.

Your company\’s security policy states that you cannot send data outside of your Microsoft Power Bl tenant

Which approach provides the widest variety of visuals while adhering to the security policy?

A. Use default visuals or custom visuals uploaded from a .pbiviz file.

B. Use only default visuals.

C. Use default or any custom visuals from the marketplace.

D. Use default or certified custom visuals.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You have a Power Bi report for the procurement department. The report contains data from the following tables.

pl-300 free exam sample questions 13

There is a one-to-many relationship between Suppliers to line items that use the ID and Supplier ID columns. The report contains the visuals shown in the following table.

You need to minimize the size of the dataset without affecting the visuals. What should you do?

A. Remove the rows from Line items where LineItems[invoice Date] is before the beginning of last month

B. Merge Suppliers and Uneltems.

C. Group Lineltems by Lineitems[ invoice id) and Lineitems[invoice Date) with a sum of Lineitems(price).

D. Remove the Lineitems[Description] column.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

You import a Power Bl dataset that contains the following tables:

1. Date

2. Product

3. Product Inventory

The Product inventory table contains 25 million rows. A sample of the data is shown in the following table.

pl-300 free exam sample questions 14

The Product Inventory table relates to the Date table by using the DateKey column. The Product inventory table relates to the Product table by using the ProductKey column. You need to reduce the size of the data model without losing information. What should you do?

A. Change Summarization for DateKey to Don\’t Summarize.

B. Change the data type of UnitCost to Integer.

C. Remove the relationship between Date and Product Inventory.

D. Remove MovementDate.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

You need to configure access for the sales department users. The solution must meet the security requirements. What should you do?

A. Add the sales department as a member of the reports workspace

B. Add the Azure Active Directory group of the sales department as an Admin of the reports workspace.

C. Distribute an app to the users in the Azure Active Directory group of the sales department.

D. Share each report with the Azure Active Directory group of the sales department.

Correct Answer: B


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Give you a brief introduction to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance exam. The real exam consists of 40-60 questions and needs to be completed within 2 hours. To pass the exam, you need to score 700 points out of 1000. The exam fee is $165.

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations is associated with the MB-310 exam and you need to know about it as well.

Successfully passing the MB-300 and MB-310 exams will earn you a Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Finance Functional Consultant Associate.

Dynamics 365 Finance Functional Consultant Associate Certification Flowchart

What useful learning materials should I pay attention to for the MB-310 exam?

  • Configure and use the general ledger in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Configure and use cash and bank management, and sales tax in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Work with accounts payable in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Work with accounts receivable in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Configure and use budgeting in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Configure and manage fixed assets and Asset leasing in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Get started with cost accounting for supply chains in Dynamics 365 Finance
  • Work with Expense management in Dynamics 365 Project Operations
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Microsoft MB-310 – Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance Latest Questions Free

Q-1

SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). USMF plans to implement a new manufacturing department that will be based in Australia. You need to create a draft account structure for the new department. The account structure must use the same account structure as a department named Manufacturing India and be named Manufacturing Australia.

To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.

Correct Answer:
You need to create an account structure with the same structure as the department named Manufacturing India by using the following instructions.

1. Go to Navigation pane > Modules > General ledger > Chart of accounts > Structures > Configure account structures.
2. On the Action pane, click New to open the drop dialog.
3. In the Account structure field, type a name to describe the purpose of the account structure.
4. In the Description field, type a description to specify the purpose of the account structure.
5. Click Create.
6. In the Segments and allowed values, click Add segment.
7. In the dimensions list, select the dimension to add to the account structure.
8. At the end of the list, click Add segment.
9. Repeat steps 6 to 9 as needed.
10. In the Allowed value details section, select the segment to edit the allowed values. For example, click the Main Account field.
11. In the Operator field, select an option, such as is between and includes.
12. In the Value field, type a value. For example, 600000.
13. In the through field, type a value. For example, 699999.
14. In the Allowed value details section, click Apply.
15. Repeat steps 10 to 15 as needed.
16. In the Allowed value details section, click Add new criteria.
17. In the Operator field, select an option, such as is between and includes.
18. In the Value field, type a value. For example, 033.
19. In the through field, type a value. For example, 034.
20. Click Apply.
21. In the grid, select the segment to edit the allowed values. For example, Cost Center.
22. In the CostCenter field, type a value. For example, 007..021.
23. In the Segments and allowed values, click Add.
24. In the MainAccount field, type a value. For example, 600000..699999
25. In the grid, select the segment to edit the allowed values. For example, Department.
26. In the Department field, type a value. For example, 032.
27. In the CostCenter field, type a value. For example, 086.
28. On the Action pane, click Validate.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/tasks/create-account-structures

Q-2

A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance to manage budgets.
You need to reallocate funds during the year.
Which budget code should you use?
A. Carry-forward
B. Zero-based
C. Pre-encumbrance
D. Transfer

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/budgeting/basic-budgeting-overview-configuration

Q-3

You are configuring the year-end setup in Dynamics 365 Finance. You need to configure the year-end setup to meet the following requirements: The accounting adjustments that are received in the first quarter must be able to be posted into the previous year\\’s Period 13. The fiscal year closing can be run again, but only the most recent closing entry will remain in the transactions. All dimensions from profit and loss must carry over into the retained earnings. All future and previous periods must have an On Hold status.

Solution:
Configure General ledger parameters.

Set the Delete close of year transactions option to No.

Set the Create closing transactions during transfer option to No.

Set the Fiscal year status to permanently closed option to No. Define the Year-end close template.
-Designate a retained earnings main account for each legal entity.

Set the Financial dimensions will be used on the Opening transactions option to No.

Set the Transfer profit and loss dimensions to Close All. Set all prior and future Ledger periods to a status of On Hold. Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/year-end-close

Q-4

You are configuring the year-end setup in Dynamics 365 Finance. You need to configure the year-end set up to meet the following requirements:

The accounting adjustments that are received in the first quarter must be able be posted into the previous year\\’s Period 13. The fiscal year closing can be run again, but only the most recent closing entry will remain in the transactions. All dimensions from profit and loss must carry over into the retained earnings. All future and previous periods must have an On Hold status.

Solution:
Configure General ledger parameters.

Set the Delete close of year transactions option to Yes.

Set the Create closing transactions during transfer option to Yes.

Set the Fiscal year status to permanently closed option to No. Define the Year-end close template.
-Designate a retained earnings main account for each legal entity.

Set the Financial dimensions will be used on the Opening transactions option to No.

Set the Transfer profit and loss dimensions

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/year-end-close

Q-5

DRAG DROP
You are configuring a Dynamics 365 Finance environment for intercompany accounting. You create the following legal entities:

Company A
Company B

You need to configure intercompany accounting for both legal entities. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/intercompany-accounting-setup

Q-6

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. A client has one legal entity, two departments, and two divisions. The client is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance. The departments and divisions are set up as financial dimensions. The client has the following requirements:

1. Only expense accounts require dimensions posted with the transactions.
2. Users must not have the option to select dimensions for a balance sheet account.
You need to configure the ledger to show applicable financial dimensions based on the main account selected in a journal entry.

Solution: Configure two account structures: one for expense accounts and including applicable dimensions, and one for balance sheet and excluding financial dimensions. Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/configure-account-structures

Q-7

A company has many customers who are not paying invoices on time. You need to use the collection letter functionality to manage customer delinquencies. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Cancel the collection letters after they are created and posted.
B. Print all of the collection letters.
C. Delete the collection letters after posting when an error occurs.
D. Post the collection letters.

Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://d365tour.com/en/microsoft-dynamics-d365o/finance-d365fo-en/collection-letters/

Q-8

You are configuring account structures and advanced rules in Dynamics 365 Finance. All balance sheet accounts require Business Unit and Department dimensions. The Shareholder distribution account requires an additional dimension for the Principal. You need to set up the account structures.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create a new main account for each of the company\\’s principals. Then, create an account structure for all balance sheet accounts that includes the required dimension.
B. Create a new main account for Shareholder distribution. Add an advanced rule for the Principal dimension.
C. Create an account structure for all the balance sheet accounts. Set up an advanced rule for the Shareholder distribution account for the Principal dimension.
D. Create an account structure for balance sheet accounts without Shareholder distribution. Then, create a second account structure for Shareholder distribution that includes all required dimensions.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/configure-account-structures

Q-9

You are setting up the Accounts payable module and vendor invoice policies for an organization. You need to set up vendor invoice policies that run when vendor invoices are posted in the system. In which two ways can you set up the policies? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Set up invoice matching validation for vendor invoice policy.
B. Configure the vendor invoice workflow to run the policies.
C. Run the policies when you post a vendor invoice by using the Vendor invoice page and when you open the Vendor invoice policy violations page.
D. Apply the policies to invoices that were created in the invoice register or invoice journal.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/key-tasks-vendor-invoice-policies

Q-10

HOTSPOT

You are asked to configure the method of payment for vendors. You are viewing an Accounts payable method of payment. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Q-11

You are configuring vendor collaboration security roles for external vendors. You manually set up a vendor contact. You need to assign the Vendor (external) role to this vendor. Which tasks can this vendor perform?

A. Request a new user account for a contact person by using the Provision user action.
B. Maintain vendor collaboration invoices.
C. Delete any contact person that they have created.
D. View and modify contact person information, such as the person\’s title, email address, and telephone number.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/procurement/set-up-maintainvendor-collaboration

Q-12

SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). You need to implement a quarterly accruals scheme for USMF. The accrual scheme settings must match the settings of
the monthly and annual accrual schemes. To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer:

Look at the monthly and annual accrual scheme settings. Create a quarterly accrual scheme with the same settings by using the following instructions:
1. Go to Navigation pane > Modules > General ledger > Journal setup > Accrual schemes.
2. Select New.
3. In the Accrual identification field, type a value.
4. In the Description of accrual scheme field, type a value.
5. In the Debit field, specify the desired values. The main account defined will replace the debit main account on the journal voucher line and it will also be used for the reversal of the deferral based on the ledger accrual transactions.
6. In the Credit field, specify the desired values. The main account defined will replace the credit main account on the journal voucher line and it will also be used for the reversal of the deferral based on the ledger accrual transactions.
7. In the Voucher field, select how you want the voucher determined when the transactions are posted.
8. In the Description field, type a value to describe the transactions that will be posted.
9. In the Period frequency field, select how often the transactions should occur.
10. In the Number of occurrences by period field, enter a number.
11. In the Post transactions field, select when the transactions should be posted, such as Monthly.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/tasks/create-accrual-schemes

Q-13

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. A customer uses Dynamics 365 Finance. The customer creates a purchase order for the purchase of $20,000 in office furniture.

You need to configure the system to ensure that the funds are reserved when the purchase order is confirmed. Solution: Configure item posting groups for purchase requisitions. Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

DRAG DROP
Match the tools to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate tool from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS)
SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) is an integrated environment for managing any SQL infrastructure, from SQL Server to Azure SQL Database.

Box 2: Microsoft Visual Studio Code
Visual Studio Code is a streamlined code editor with support for development operations like debugging, task running, and version control. It aims to provide just the tools a developer needs for a quick code-build-debug cycle and leaves more complex workflows to fuller featured IDEs, such as Visual Studio IDE.

Box 3: Azure Data Studio
Azure Data Studio offers a modern, keyboard-focused SQL coding experience that makes your everyday tasks easier with built-in features, such as multiple tab windows, a rich SQL editor, IntelliSense, keyword completion, code snippets, code navigation, and source control integration (Git). Run on-demand SQL queries, view and save results as text, JSON, or Excel. Edit data, organize your favorite database connections, and browse database objects in a familiar object browsing experience.

Box 4: Microsoft SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT)
SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT) is a modern development tool for building SQL Server relational databases, databases in Azure SQL, Analysis Services (AS) data models, Integration Services (IS) packages, and Reporting Services (RS) reports. With SSDT, you can design and deploy any SQL Server content type with the same ease as you would develop an application in Visual Studio.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/ssms/download-sql-server-management-studio-ssms
https://code.visualstudio.com/docs/supporting/FAQ
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/azure-data-studio/what-is-azure-data-studio
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/ssdt/download-sql-server-data-tools-ssdt

QUESTION 2

You need to design and model a database by using a graphical tool that supports project-oriented offline database development. What should you use?

A. Microsoft SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT)
B. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS)
C. Azure Databricks
D. Azure Data Studio

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/ssdt/project-oriented-offline-database-development?view=sqlserverver15

QUESTION 3

You have a SQL pool in Azure Synapse Analytics that is only used actively every night for eight hours. You need to minimize the cost of the SQL pool during idle times. The solution must ensure that the data remains intact. What should you do on the SQL pool?

A. Scale down the data warehouse units (DWUs).
B. Pause the pool.
C. Create a user-defined restore point.
D. Delete the pool

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/synapse-analytics/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-managecompute-overview

QUESTION 4

Match the types of data to the appropriate Azure data services.
To answer, drag the appropriate data types from the column on the left to its service on the right. Each data type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Yes
Like IaaS, PaaS includes infrastructure -servers, storage, and networking -but also middleware, development tools, business intelligence (BI) services, database management systems, and more. PaaS is designed to support the complete web application lifecycle: building, testing, deploying, managing, and updating.

PaaS allows you to avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing software licenses, the underlying application infrastructure and middleware, container orchestrators such as Kubernetes, or the development tools and other resources

Box 2: Yes
You manage the applications and services you develop, and the cloud service provider typically manages everything else.

Box 3: No
There really is no way to pause / stop billing for your Azure SQL Database.
Microsoft\’s official answer “Yes, you can export your database. Delete the Azure SQL database and that will pause billing. Then when you need it you can create a new database and import your previously exported DB.”

Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/overview/what-is-paas
https://feedback.azure.com/forums/217321-sql-database/suggestions/6931152-please-add-ability-to-temporarily-turn-offon-sql

QUESTION 6

Which setting can only be configured during the creation of an Azure Cosmos DB account?

A. geo-redundancy
B. multi-region writes
C. production or non-reduction account type
D. API

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

You have the following JSON document.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the JSON document. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/js/js_json_arrays.asp https://www.w3schools.com/js/js_json_objects.asp

QUESTION 8

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 9

Your company recently reported sales from the third quarter. You have the chart shown in the following exhibit.

Which type of analysis is shown for the fourth quarter?

A. predictive
B. prescription
C. descriptive
D. diagnostic

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

You are writing a set of SQL queries that administrators will use to troubleshoot an Azure SQL database. You need to embed documents and query results into a SQL notebook. What should you use?

A. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS)
B. Azure Data Studio
C. Azure CLI
D. Azure PowerShell

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/5997/create-sql-server-notebooks-in-azure-data-studio/

QUESTION 11

You have an Azure SQL database that you access directly from the internet. You recently changed your external IP address. After changing the IP address, you can no longer access the database. You can connect to other resources in Azure What is a possible cause of the issue?

A. a database-level firewall
B. role-based access control (RSAC)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Domain Name Service (DNS)

Correct Answer: A

The Azure SQL Database firewall lets you decide which IP addresses may or may not have access to either your Azure SQL Server or your Azure SQL database. When creating an Azure SQL Database, the firewall needs to be configured before anyone will be able to access the database. By default, no external access to your SQL Database will be allowed until you explicitly assign permission by creating a firewall rule.

Reference: https://www.sqlshack.com/configuring-the-azure-sql-database-firewall/

QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
Match the terms to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.ach term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Table_(database)#:~:text=A%20table%20is%20a%20collection,table%20format%20within%20a%20database.andtext=In%20relational%20databases%2C%20and%20flat,a%20row%20and%20column%20intersect.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/View_(SQL)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Database_index#:~:text=A%20database%20index%20is%20a,maintain%20the%20index%20data%20structure.

QUESTION 13

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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Exam Code: 1V0-81.20
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QUESTION # 1

Which would require a Layer 7 Firewall?

A. block a specific port
B. block a subnet range
C. block a host
D. block a specific application

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 2

What is the default user\\’s network range when creating a new access policy rule in Workspace ONE Access?

A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. ALL RANGES
C. 192.168.0.0/16
D. LOCAL SUBNET

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 3

In Workspace ONE Intelligence, which of the following is a role that can be assigned to an administrator account?

A. Super User
B. Helpdesk
C. Read-only
D. Automater

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 4

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cyber Kill events on the left into their proper sequential order on the right.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 5

Which is a common solution to implement for inbound network attacks?

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B. Firewall
C. Proxy
D. Reverse Proxy

Correct Answer: B

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B. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
C. vSphere ESXi 6.5, KVM on RHEL 7.6, Ubuntu 18.04.2 LTS
D. vSphere ESXi 6.7U1 or higher, CentOS KVM 7.6, RHEL KVM

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 7

What are the three core characteristics of VMware\\’s Intrinsic Security solution? (Choose three.)

A. integrated
B. extensible
C. unified
D. content-centric
E. centrally managed
F. built-in

Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION # 8

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, what is the search field you would use when searching for a command line?

A. command_line:
B. full_cmdline:
C. process_cmdline:
D. process_commandline

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Carbon-Black-Cloud/services/carbon-black-cloud-userguide.pdf (29)

QUESTION # 9

Micro-segmentation is under which pillar of trust in VMware\’s 5 pillars of Zero Trust?

A. User
B. Session/Transport
C. Application
D. Device

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://events.afcea.org/Augusta20/CUSTOM/pdf/Dell%20Technologies%20-%20ZeroTrust.pdf

QUESTION # 10

A technician has been asked to confirm a specific browser extension does not exist on any endpoint in their environment. Which is the VMware Carbon Black tool to use for this task?

A. Enterprise EDR
B. EDR
C. Audit and Remediation
D. Endpoint Standard

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true about the firewall rule?

A. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that drops traffic on port 22
B. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that rejects traffic on port 22
C. It is a distributed firewall applied to App-Services, DB-Servers and Web-Servers that drops traffic on port 22
D. It is a gateway firewall applied to a Tier-0 gateway that rejects traffic on port 22

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 12

What is one of the limitations of traditional Antivirus when compared to Next Generation Antivirus?

A. Traditional AV does not need a client installed on the machines to function
B. Traditional AV focuses on signature or definition-based threats
C. Traditional AV requires integration with a SIEM to use the next-generation features
D. Traditional AV does not provide a dashboard

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 13

In VMware Carbon Black Cloud, which reputations have the highest priority during analysis?

A. Known Priority
B. Trusted Allow List
C. Company Allow List
D. Ignore

Correct Answer: B

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The Cisco exam questions 500-701 PDF file contains a total of 12 questions and answers and is part of the latest version of the dumps.

Free Cisco Advanced Video Specialization 500-701 Exam Actual Questions

QUESTION 1 #

Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

A. Global phone books
B. The ability to register desktop phones
C. The ability to register video endpoints
D. SRST redundancy

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2 #

Which room system can also function as a whiteboard?

A. Spark Board
B. SX10
C. SX20
D. MX800

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3 #

How many simultaneous HD calls can be supported on a Cisco Meeting Server 1000?

A. 24
B. 96
C. 108
D. 48

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4 #

What is the maximum number of Expressways that can be clustered?

A. 9
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 #

How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 50
D. 26

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6 #

Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?

A. When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications configured.
B. Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
C. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
D. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7#

Which Cisco Meeting Server component is used for traversal?

A. TURN Server
B. Recorder
C. SIP Edge
D. Database

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 #

Which is a Cisco Spark Service Add-ons?

A. Calling
B. Messaging
C. Room Registration
D. Meeting

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9 #

Which call processing stage standardizes destination aliases originating from both SIP and H.323 devices?

A. Conference Template
B. Find Rules
C. Transforms
D. Hunt Group

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 #

When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?

A. .js
B. .json
C. .mp4
D. .xml

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11#

What is the primary purpose of the Traversal Subzone?

A. To enable firewall traversal between public and private endpoints.
B. To provide Mobile Remote Access for endpoints outside the network.
C. To apply bandwidth restrictions on traversal calls.
D. To encrypt traversal calls to neighbored Expressways.

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/admin_guide/Cisco_VCS_Administrator_Guide_X7-2.pdf

QUESTION 12 #

Which is used in both CMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?

A. Cisco CTS
B. Cisco Conductor
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/assets/global/CZ/events/2015/ciscoconnect/pdf/TECH-COLL-1_conferencing-ivsykorajmartan.pdf

QUESTION 13 #

Which is a configuration mode through Cisco Spark that allows Zero Touch Meetings (ZTM) and allows a user to utilize their enterprise phone as the audio or video terminal for Spark calls?

A. Call Service Connect
B. Calendar Service
C. Directory Service
D. Call Connector

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14 #

Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. CMA Clients
B. Jabber Video
C. Immersive Telepresence endpoints
D. Legacy H.323 endpoints

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15 #

How is TIP defined?

A. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non-immersive endpoints.
B. TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C. TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D. TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent a user named User1 from permanently deleting private chats in Microsoft Teams.
Solution: You place the group mailboxes used by Microsoft Teams on Litigation Hold.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. All users have a computer that runs Windows 10 and has Microsoft Teams installed.

A user reports the following issues:
Users lose their connection during screen sharing.
The user selection process takes too long to complete.
The Microsoft Teams client crashes and restarts automatically.

You need to view the Microsoft Teams debug logs to troubleshoot the issues.
What should you do?

A. From the Microsoft Teams client, select F1. Open the ETL files in the %Appdata%\Microsoft\Teams\folder.
B. From the Microsoft Teams client, select Ctrl+Alt+Shift+1. Open the log files in the %Userprofile%\Downloads\ folder.
C. From Event Viewer, open the Application log and filter the log for a keyword of MSTeams.
D. Right-click the Microsoft Teams icon in the application tray, and then select Get logs. Open Logs.txt in the
%Appdata%\Microsoft\Teams\ folder.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/log-files

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Phone System.
You need to configure the environment to meet the following requirements:

Only users in the company\\’s sales department must have Call forwarding and simultaneous ringing to external phone
numbers set to Off.

Only users in the marketing department must have Inbound calls that can be routed to call groups set to Off.
All outbound calls to the PSTN must use the auto attendant number as the caller ID.

What is the minimum number of policies that should be created? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a team named Sales.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that all guest users who are members of Sales receive an email message
each year to verify that they want to remain in the team.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. an identity provider
B. a Microsoft Outlook add-in
C. a supervision policy
D. an access review

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
Your company plans to migrate to Microsoft Teams from Microsoft Skype for Business Online. The org-wide
coexistence mode for Microsoft Teams is set to Teams Only.

The company has two named User1 and User2.
You need to implement a migration solution that meets the following requirements:

User1 must be able to chat and create meetings by using Skype for Business only.
User1 must be able to read and post messages by using Microsoft Teams channels.
User2 must use Microsoft Teams only.

How should you complete the PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/grant-csteamsupgradepolicy?view=skype-ps

QUESTION 6

You need to resolve the notification issues identified during the pilot project. What should you modify?

A. the global meeting policy
B. the global messaging policy
C. the org-wide Teams settings
D. the app permission policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/messaging-policies-in-teams

QUESTION 7

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
A user named User5 cannot establish calls from Microsoft Teams.

You review the Microsoft Teams client for User5 and discover that the dial pad is unavailable.
Other users at the company can establish calls successfully.

You need to ensure that User5 can establish calls.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer represents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Modify the caller ID properties of User5.
B. Assign a Phone System license to User5.
C. Assign a SIP address to User5.
D. Assign an app setup policy to User5.
E. Enable User5 for Enterprise Voice.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.

The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:

Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
The company has a Microsoft Teams group named Group1.

You need to remove inactive users from Group1. The members of Group1 must be validated every month.
What should you use?

A. supervision policies in the Security and Compliance admin center
B. access reviews in the Azure Active Directory admin center
C. eDiscovery cases in the Security and Compliance admin center
D. usage reports in the Microsoft Teams admin center

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

DRAG-DROP
Your company has a custom Microsoft Teams app named App1.
You need to deploy App1. The solution must ensure that App1 appears as the first item on the app bar of the Microsoft
Teams client.

Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/teams-custom-app-policies-and-settings

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
The company has three departments. Each department contains a group as shown in the following table.

You plan to create a team for each group.
You need to ensure that a team can be created for each group. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do to each group? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:

Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From PowerShell, you run the New-AzureADPolicy and Set-AzureADPolicy cmdlets.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
A user invites an external user to join a Microsoft Teams meeting by using a Microsoft Outlook meeting invitation.
The external user cannot join the meeting.

You need to ensure that all external users can join Microsoft Team meetings.
What should you do from the Microsoft Teams admin center?

A. From Guest access in the Org-wide settings set Allow guest access in Microsoft Teams to On.
B. Edit the Meeting settings and set Anonymous users can join a meeting to On.
C. Edit the global meeting policy and set Allow scheduling private meetings to On.
D. Edit the live events policy and set Who can join live events for Everyone.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/meeting-settings-in-teams

QUESTION 14

HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You create a team named Room1.

You need to ensure that Room1 automatically accepts meeting invitations. The solution must prevent meeting
invitations from being accepted if the room is unavailable.

How should you complete the PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mailboxes/setcalendarprocessing?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 15

Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:

Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the global meeting policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

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